000-058 000-562 000-539 000-Z04 dernières questions d'examen certification IBM et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: 000-058

Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Performance Tester V8 )

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-562

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 Implementation)

Questions et réponses: 200 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-539

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 Administration )

Questions et réponses: 129 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-Z04

Nom d'Examen: IBM (ZEnterprise Technical Update Mastery)

Questions et réponses: 42 Q&As

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NO.1 When including profiles in a scan the desired profiles can be highlighted in the Available Profiles list box
and applied to which two selectable sections? (Choose two.)
A. Files
B. Hosts
C. Directories
D. Filesystems
E. Operating System Types
Answer: C,D

IBM   000-562 examen   000-562   000-562

NO.2 What must be done before IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) manages network
attached storage (NAS)?
A. enable SNMP on the NAS filer
B. enable the Storage Resource Agent on the NAS filer
C. mount a file system of the NAS filer to the agent server
D. configure the CIMOM server to be on a trusted domain of the NAS filer
Answer: A

IBM   000-562   000-562   000-562   000-562   000-562

NO.3 When attempting to log in to the IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) Graphical User
Interface (GUI) the user gets an access denied message. What is causing this error?
A. The TPC GUI service is down.
B. The user does not have a valid operating system login ID.
C. The user does not have Administrative Authority on the server.
D. The user has not been added to a mapped role or group within TPC.
Answer: D

IBM   000-562   000-562

NO.4 The History Aggregator is enabled by default to run every day at 3:00 a.m. Which two historical data
statistics can be used for trend analysis? (Choose two.)
A. disk removal statistics
B. disk capacity statistics
C. file modification statistics
D. file backup time statistics
E. file type space usage statistics
Answer: B,E

IBM   000-562 examen   000-562 examen

NO.5 Where can a list of all the devices discovered by IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 be
viewed?
A. Reporting > System Reporting
B. System Reports > Disk > SAN Assets (All)
C. System Reports > Fabric > SAN Assets (All)
D. Data Manager > Reporting > Asset Reporting
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-562   000-562   000-562

NO.6 A customer has IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.1 (TPC) installed on Windows 2003 with 8GB
of RAM running IBM DB2 V9.5 Fixpack 5 with 10 Data Agents and 5 Fabric Agents. The customer wants
to utilize the Configure Device Wizard on the newest TPC V4.2 code. Which solution will retain their
current configuration and minimize additional setup time?
A. fresh install of DB2
B. upgrade to TPC V4.2
C. upgrade to TPC V4.2 and migrate Data and Fabric Agents
D. fresh install of TPC V4.2 and deploy Storage Resource Agents
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-562   000-562   000-562

NO.7 Which command must be run for IBM DB2 before IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 is
installed in a UNIX environment?
A. ./usr/db2inst1/sqllib/db2profile
B. . /opt/db2inst1/sqllib/db2profile
C. . /home/db2inst1/sqllib/db2profile
D. . /home/sqllib/db2profile/db2inst1
Answer: C

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NO.8 In preparing for migration of all IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center (TPC) components to the newest
level, the implementing person installed an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) Backup/Archive client on
the TPC Server and configured it to run standard file backups of the local filesystems. What is the best
practice backup method for TPC?
A. online backup using TSM API for Databases to save TPC configuration
B. online backup using the built-in TPC Backup Utility which uses the API to send data to a TSM server
C. offline backup of TPC to TSM without pausing any servers to archive the current state of the TPC
Server
D. offline backup of TPC to TSM with stopping the data, the device servers, and the DB2 database prior to
copying the files
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the full default path for finding log files that give information about the success or failure of the
IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) installation on a 32-bit Windows server.?
A. C:\Program Files\TPC\log
B. C:\Program Files\IBM\data\log
C. C:\Program Files\IBM\TPC\log
D. C:\Program Files\IBM\device\log
Answer: C

IBM   000-562 examen   000-562   000-562   certification 000-562

NO.10 Which two areas can configure history retention in order to perform historical analysis and reporting?
(Choose two.)
A. Scan
B. Probe
C. Computers
D. Filesystems
E. Performance Monitors
Answer: D,E

IBM   000-562 examen   000-562   certification 000-562

NO.11 IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) is managing DS8000, DS6000, DS5000, DS4000,
DS3000, Element Management Clients, NetApp, Hitachi Data Systems, XIV storage subsystems, and
SAN Volume Controllers. A discovery job is scheduled to run every 6 hours and a probe job is scheduled
to run every 12 hours. Recently the probe job is the only one that has errors. What could be the problem?
A. The probe job failed on CIMOM devices.
B. The probe job is taking more than 12 hours.
C. The discovery job taking more than 6 hours.
D. The probe job is schedule to run indefinitely.
Answer: B

IBM   000-562   000-562

NO.12 Which task must be completed to fine tune and control which files are scanned during a filesystem scan
and specify exactly which statistical information is gathered?
A. create a custom scan
B. create a custom probe
C. create a custom profile
D. create a custom Storage Resource Agent Group
Answer: C

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NO.13 A client wants to migrate 100 data and fabric agents into Storage Resource Agents (SRA). In addition to
command line and installation wizard, what other method can be used for the migration?
A. Administrative Services > Configuration > SRA Upgrades
B. Administrative Services > Configuration > SRA Deployments
C. Administrative Services > Configuration > Migrate Data/Fabric Agent
D. Administrative Services > Data Sources > Data/SRA > Migrate Data/Fabric Agent
Answer: C

IBM   000-562 examen   certification 000-562

NO.14 Profiles enable which two capabilities when used in a scan? (Choose two.)
A. ability to gather statistics
B. ability to control which files are scanned
C. ability to control which hosts are scanned
D. ability to control which fabrics are scanned
E. ability to control which disk storage subsystems are scanned
Answer: A,B

IBM   certification 000-562   certification 000-562   000-562 examen

NO.15 A customer wants to manage devices in the same manner (storage, fabric, server, or tapes). Which
panel would be displayed in the Configure Device Wizard?
A. Select CIMOM
B. Select Devices
C. Select Device Preference
D. Select Storage Subsystem
Answer: B

IBM   000-562   000-562 examen   certification 000-562   000-562 examen

NO.16 IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) Server audit logging initiated by the Graphical User
Interface writes to the log file at which location?
A. TPC_installation_directory\IBM\TPC\data\log\AuditTrace.log
B. TPC_installation_directory\IBM\TPC\device\log\AuditTrace.log
C. TPC_installation_directory\IBM\TPC\data\log\auditTPCDataServer.log
D. TPC_installation_directory\IBM\TPC\device\log\auditTPCDeviceServer.log
Answer: A

IBM   000-562   certification 000-562

NO.17 Given a malfunctioning IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.2 (TPC) installation at a customer
site after a network topology reconfiguration, what is the full path to check the TPC configuration files?
A. c:\Program Files\IBM
B. c:\Program Files\IBM\TPC
C. c:\Program Files\IBM\TPC\config
D. c:\Program Files\IBM\TPC\server\config
Answer: C

IBM   000-562 examen   certification 000-562   000-562   000-562 examen

NO.18 How can the storage subsystem's performance be viewed?
A. Data Manager > Reporting > Storage Subsystem Performance
B. Disk Manager > Reporting > Storage Subsystems > Volume to HBA Assignment
C. Topology > Storage, click Topology Settings and add Performance on the Active Overlay settings
D. Topology > Fabrics, click Topology Settings and add Expand All Sections on the Active Overlay
settings
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-562 examen   000-562   000-562

NO.19 In provisioning a new storage subsystem, an administrator inadvertently violated a zoning-related
policy. If the zoning-related configuration changes persist in the database, which IBM Tivoli Storage
Productivity Center V4.2 analytics function can be used to detect this policy violation?
A. Storage Optimizer
B. Analytics Validation
C. SAN Policy Manager
D. Configuration Analysis
Answer: D

IBM   000-562   000-562   000-562

NO.20 A customer uses the Configure Wizard device to configure new or existing resources so that data is
collected on the configured group. Which resource can be configured with the wizard?
A. In-band Fabric Agent
B. SAN Volume Controller
C. Storage Resource Agent
D. VMWare VI Data Source
Answer: B

IBM   000-562   000-562   000-562 examen   000-562

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Code d'Examen: 000-567

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager V7.2.0.2 Implementation)

Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

Code d'Examen: SPS-201

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBMSPSSMBPDA: IBM SPSS Modeler Business Partner Data Analyst Associate)

Questions et réponses: 25 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-M195

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Security Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1)

Questions et réponses: 47 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-563

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1)

Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-M241

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Enterprise Marketing Management Sales Mastery Test v1 )

Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 A company's business requirements state that real-time changes must be synchronized from an IBM
LDAP directory to an RDBMS database. Which Connector is required to feed data in to the
AssemblyLine?
A. JNDI Connector
B. FileSystem Connector
C. LDAP Server Connector
D. IBM Tivoli Directory Server Change Log Connector
Answer: D

IBM   000-563   000-563

NO.2 Which Connector mode can be used in the AssemblyLine Feed section?
A. Delta
B. Iterator
C. Updat
D. AddOnly
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement is true for the Action Manager?
A. It updates the Work Entry.
B. It can send an Initial Work Entry to an AssemblyLine.
C. It is a command line utility used for importing certificates.
D. It executes rules that are configured using the Administration and Monitoring Console.
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-563   000-563   000-563 examen

NO.4 Which two statements are true about an AssemblyLine (AL)? (Choose two.)
A. An AL with an empty Feed section can do work.
B. An AL must have at least one component in the Flow section.
C. All ALs run in sequence, each one starting when the previous one shuts down.
D. The Recycle Execution mode ensures that an AL is re-launched if it terminates.
E. The Feed section acts like a loop and cycles the Flow section components once for each available
entry.
Answer: A,E

IBM   000-563   000-563 examen   certification 000-563

NO.5 Which two options are available in AssemblyLine (AL) settings? (Choose two.)
A. view AL statistics
B. select the Property Store to use
C. configure Null Behavior at the AL level
D. define default error handling for the AL
E. set the AL pool size when Server mode is in use
Answer: C,E

IBM examen   000-563   000-563 examen

NO.6 What is the unit of work in IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1?
A. Project
B. Connector
C. System Store
D. AssemblyLine
Answer: D

IBM   000-563 examen   certification 000-563   certification 000-563   000-563 examen

NO.7 What are two different ways to start an AssemblyLine (AL) with parameters from another AL? (Choose
two.)
A. AssemblyLine Parser
B. AssemblyLine Launcher
C. AssemblyLine Connector
D. AssemblyLine Loop Component
E. AssemblyLine Function Component
Answer: C,E

IBM   000-563 examen   certification 000-563

NO.8 What is an Initial Work Entry?
A. It logs information about an initial error code.
B. It is an entry passed to an AssemblyLine when it is started.
C. It is the first entry retrieved from the Connector in Iterator mode.
D. It is used during initialization of the Administration and Monitoring Console.
Answer: B

IBM   000-563   000-563 examen   000-563 examen

NO.9 Where does the Delta Engine store the snapshots it takes of data being iterated?
A. Work Entry
B. Conn Object
C. System Store
D. System Queue
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-563   000-563 examen

NO.10 Which two statements are true for the IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 Entry Object? (Choose two.)
A. It analyzes and correlates events.
B. It can represent a single database row.
C. It acts as a client to a connected system.
D. It can be manipulated directly from Hook scripts.
E. It is used to encode a byte stream during read and write operations.
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 Which statement is true for Server mode?
A. It is similar to the Delta mode.
B. It can be used in the Flow Section of the AssemblyLine.
C. It is used to play back a recorded AssemblyLine execution.
D. It binds to some resource (like an IP port), accepts client connections, processes incoming data, and
returns a response to the client.
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-563   000-563 examen

NO.12 What are two uses for a Server mode Connector? (Choose two.)
A. to implement a web service
B. to intercept LDAP bind requests
C. to run AssembyLines in Simulation mode
D. to run multiple AssembyLines simultaneously
E. to enable First Failure Data Capture in AssemblyLines
Answer: A,B

IBM   000-563   certification 000-563   000-563

NO.13 Which two statements are true about one AssemblyLine (AL1) starting another AssemblyLine (AL2) in
IBM Tivoli Directory
Integrator V7.1 (TDI)? (Choose two.)
A. Both ALs can run at the same time.
B. Both ALs must be part of the same TDI Project.
C. Both ALs must be running on the same TDI Server.
D. The Task Call Block is used to pass in parameters and data.
E. If AL2 is started using script calls then it runs at a higher priority.
Answer: A,D

IBM examen   000-563   000-563   certification 000-563

NO.14 Which two statements are true regarding a Task Call Block (TCB)? (Choose two.)
A. It is used for deleting an entry in Delete mode.
B. It is used by a caller to set a number of parameters for an AssemblyLine (AL).
C. It contains information about AL exceptions and error codes.
D. It is a Search (criteria) object used by ALs and Connectors to specify a generic search criteria.
E. It can provide a list of input or output parameters specified by an AL, including operation codes defined
in theOperations tab of the AL.
Answer: B,E

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NO.15 What is a valid component in an AssemblyLine?
A. Script
B. Method
C. Procedure
D. Subroutine
Answer: A

IBM   000-563   000-563 examen   000-563 examen

NO.16 Which connector type must be used to access an LDAP LDIF file?
A. JNDI Connector
B. LDIF Connector
C. LDAP Connector D. File System Connector
Answer: D

IBM   000-563   000-563

NO.17 AssemblyLines can be monitored using which two methods? (Choose two.)
A. System Store
B. Changelog Connectors
C. Server mode Connectors
D. command line utility tdisrvctl
E. Administration and Monitoring Console
Answer: D,E

IBM   certification 000-563   000-563 examen   000-563 examen

NO.18 Which two IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 components are used to control AssemblyLine flow?
(Choose two.)
A. Else Branch
B. Attribute Map
C. Fail-over Node
D. Connector Loop
E. Aggregator Loop
Answer: A,D

certification IBM   000-563   000-563   000-563

NO.19 Which three IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 components can be used in an AssemblyLine?
(Choose three.)
A. Script
B. Compiler
C. Connector
D. Protocol Bridge
E. Lexical Analyzer
F. Function Component
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.20 Which three platforms support IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1? (Choose three.)
A. AIX
B. HP/UX
C. Android
D. OS/400
E. System z
F. Mac OS X
Answer: A,B,E

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Certification IBM de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen 000-S32 00M-648 000-N08 000-583, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-S32

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM System Storage Sales Mastery Test V2)

Questions et réponses: 47 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 00M-648

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Rational IT Sales Mastery Test v2 )

Questions et réponses: 81 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-N08

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Streams Technical Mastery Test v1)

Questions et réponses: 53 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-583

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Content Analytics and Search V2.2 )

Questions et réponses: 141 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Streams Studio component displays output generated by running various streamtool commands?
A. Console
B. Error Log file
C. SPL Application Graph
D. Project Explorer
Answer: A

IBM   000-N08   000-N08   certification 000-N08

NO.2 Which command gives the health status of the individual processing elements of a submitted Streams
job?
A. streamtool lsjobs
B. streamtool lspes
C. streamtool getresourcestate
D. streamtool getnsentry
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-N08   000-N08   000-N08   000-N08

NO.3 Which host tags are defined by Streams?
A. compile, execute
B. execution, build
C. build, run
D. compile, run
Answer: B

IBM   000-N08   certification 000-N08

NO.4 Which statement is CORRECT.?
A. A composite operator does not belong to any namespace.
B. All operators in a composite operator must belong to the same namespace.
C. Primitive operators all belong to the com.ibm.primitive name space.
D. It is always acceptable to use fully qualified operator names (i.e. names that include the namespace).
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-N08 examen   000-N08   000-N08   000-N08

NO.5 Which statement is TRUE regarding InfoSphere Streams?
A. A stream is defined as an infinite sequence of tuples.
B. The tuples in a stream can be of different types.
C. A Processing Element (PE) can only contain a single operator.
D. An operator port can accept streams of different types as long as they are properly defined.
Answer: A

IBM   000-N08 examen   certification 000-N08

Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur IBM 000-450 000-120 LOT-916 00M-194 000-610

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Code d'Examen: 000-450

Nom d'Examen: IBM (Midrange Storage Sales V1)

Questions et réponses: 174 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-120

Nom d'Examen: IBM (Academic Associate: IBM i 7 Administration)

Questions et réponses: 41 Q&As

Code d'Examen: LOT-916

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Forms 4 - Form Design and Development)

Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 00M-194

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Guardium Sales Mastery Test v1)

Questions et réponses: 25 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-610

Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 10.1 Fundamentals)

Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

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NO.1 According to Verizon Business 2009 Data Breach Report, the majority of compromised
data__________?
A. occurs on database server level
B. resides outside of the firewall
C. is a result of laptop theft
D. happens because of insecure storage devices
Answer: D

IBM   00M-194   certification 00M-194   00M-194 examen   00M-194

NO.2 In the European Telco case, one of their immediate needs is to _________.
A. protect privacy of call records for compliance with data privacy laws
B. meet governance requirements
C. optimize database usage
D. migrate from Oracle to Microsoft database technology
Answer: A

IBM   00M-194   00M-194

NO.3 Which of the following is false?
A. Oracle Audit Vault does not rely on native logs.
B. Oracle Database Audit/Vault does not enforce separation of duties.
C. Oracle Database Vault does not support heterogeneous DB environments
D. Oracle Database/Audit Vault does not provide real-time monitoring and alerting.
Answer: B

IBM   00M-194   00M-194

IBM 000-N21 000-N15 000-N14 000-822, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: 000-N21

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Rational Collaborative Lifecycle Management for IT Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)

Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-N15

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM IOC Intelligent Water Technical Mastery Test v1)

Questions et réponses: 38 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-N14

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM SPSS Collaboration and Deployment Services Technical Support Mastery Test v1)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-822

Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Requirements Composer V3)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 What asset is NOT used to support IW v1?
A. Water Information Hub
B. Leak Management Hub
C. Non Revenue Water
D. Meter Usage Anomaly
Answer: B

IBM   000-N15   000-N15   000-N15

NO.2 How is the "Seasonal Usage" ratio calculated?
A. Summer Usage / Winter Usage
B. Winter Usage / Summer Usage
C. Summer Usage / Overall Usage
D. Winter Usage / Overall Usage
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-N15 examen   000-N15   000-N15 examen

NO.3 What are the kinds of external systems that WIH (Water Information Hub) can ingest data from?
A. SCADA systems only
B. Meter systems only
C. SCADA systems, Meter systems, EAM systems
D. None of the above
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-N15   000-N15   000-N15 examen   certification 000-N15

NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a way in which the Work Optimization component provides value.?
A. Optimizing work crew schedules
B. Detecting water usage patterns
C. Using crews more efficiently
D. Decreasing transport costs
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-N15   000-N15 examen   000-N15

NO.5 How many points of variability are called on in the WIH (Water Information Hub) programming model?
A. 7
B. 5
C. 6
D. 1
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-N15   000-N15 examen   000-N15

Pass4Test offre de IBM LOT-911 CUR-008 00M-660 00M-647 matériaux d'essai

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Code d'Examen: LOT-911

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Solution Development)

Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CUR-008

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cúram V6, Development)

Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 00M-660

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Worklight Mobile Foundation Sales Mastery Test v1)

Questions et réponses: 23 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 00M-647

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Intelligent Operations Center-Water & Transportation Sales Mastery Test v1)

Questions et réponses: 44 Q&As

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NO.1 How can the IBM i2 suite enable financial organizations reduce the time taken and effectively
manage risk when the required information comes form multiple data sources?
A. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables financial organizations to automatically
reconfigure the database schema to match the schemas of the legacy data sets.
B. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables financial organizations to automatically
reconfigure internal systems so that legacy systems are redundant.
C. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables financial organizations to import, model, and
analyze data within a single application.
D. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables financial organizations to automatically
connect to multiple data sets and import all of the data into a single repository via a stochastic web
application.
Answer: C

IBM   00M-647   00M-647   00M-647 examen   00M-647 examen

NO.2 One of the key capabilities of IBM i2 Analyst Notebook is that:
A. Intelligence Analysis Charts can be quickly generated by importing data direct from unstructured
sources which can greatly reduce the time taken to import additional information into a chart.
B. Intelligence Analysis Charts can be quickly generated by dragging and dropping data in the form of
entities, links and attributes onto the chart. Volume data can be easily imported from structured data
which can greatly reduce the time taken to import additional information into a chart.
C. Intelligence Analysis Charts can be quickly generated by dragging and dropping entropies, links, and
attrition rates onto the chart.
D. Intelligence Analysis Charts can be used to perform lookups of internet data and show this in graphical
format.
Answer: B

IBM   certification 00M-647   00M-647   00M-647

NO.3 What is one of the key benefits to an organization of introducing IBM i2 IntelliShare?
A. IBM i2 IntelliShare will auto-connect intra-organization data silos through enterprise access to enriched
data manipulation services.
B. IBM i2 IntelliShare will remove the drawbacks caused by the presence of intra-organization data silos
through enterprise access to a single intelligence agency.
C. IBM i2 IntelliShare will remove the drawbacks caused by the presence of intra-organization data silos
through enterprise access to smart phone apps.
D. IBM i2 IntelliShare will remove the drawbacks caused by the presence of intra-organization data silos
through enterprise access to an enriched single intelligence store.
Answer: D

IBM   00M-647 examen   00M-647   certification 00M-647   00M-647

NO.4 How can the IBM i2 suite ensure that investments in existing systems can be preserved and
enhanced to give greater operational benefit to a wider range of users in different geographical locations?
A. Thanks to the IBM i2 Intelligence Analysis Platform s ability to access multiple data sources across
varied geographies via the internet, investigations and analysis can be carried out using the data from
multiple sources
B. Because the IBM i2 Intelligence Analysis Platform has web search capabilities it can access all multiple
data sources across multiple geographies at much lower cost.
C. The IBM i2 Intelligence Analysis Platform s capability to access all legacy data sources from one
location retaining full integrity of their searches for investigations and analysis without the need to replace
existing databases combined with its nodal technology enable the expansion of capability across multiple
geographies.
D. The IBM i2 Intelligence Analysis Platform s nodal capability enables it to operate across multiple
geographies but only if all the data is bought into one database.
Answer: C

certification IBM   00M-647   00M-647 examen   00M-647

NO.5 The IBM i2 Analysts Notebook could be described as:
A. Analyst s Notebook is a web application designed to provide users with a powerful visualization and
analytical tool. Analyst s Notebook has a set of programmable JAVA based controls.
B. Analyst s Notebook is a standalone desktop product designed to provide users with a powerful
visualization tool. Analyst s Notebook has an API to enable programmatic control of the application via the
Analyst s Notebook SDK.
C. Analyst s Notebook is a standalone desktop product designed to provide users with a powerful
analytical tool. Analyst s Notebook has an API to enable programmatic control of the application via the
Analyst s Notebook SDK.
D. Analyst s Notebook is a standalone desktop product designed to provide users with a powerful
visualization and analytical tool. Analyst s Notebook has an API to enable programmatic control of the
application via the Analyst s Notebook SDK.
Answer: D

IBM   certification 00M-647   certification 00M-647   00M-647 examen   00M-647

IBM 000-318 000-N35 000-272 000-452 000-454 000-453 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-318

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5 Core Administration)

Questions et réponses: 56 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-N35

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM i2 Analyst's Notebook Support Mastery Test v1)

Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-272

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Message Broker V8.0 Solution Development)

Questions et réponses: 52 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-452

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Storwize V7000 Technical Solutions V2)

Questions et réponses: 74 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-454

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM High-End Tape Technical Solutions V7)

Questions et réponses: 76 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-453

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM System Storage DS8000 Technical Solutions V3)

Questions et réponses: 95 Q&As

000-318 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/000-318.html

NO.1 A system administrator needs to install IBM Installation Manager on a remote host using
Flexible
management. To do so, on which host machine should the system administrator download the
Installation Manager "kits"? (choose 2)
A. Job Manager
B. Remote host
C. On Demand Router
D. Administrative Agent
E. Deployment Manager
Answer: A,E

certification IBM   000-318 examen   000-318   000-318 examen   000-318   000-318

NO.2 A system administrator is monitoring a web application and needs to find the slowest JSP page
when a typical client load is run against the server. How can the system administrator find it?
A. Analyze the thread dump.
B. Use the HPEL Log Viewer to view traces.
C. Use the Log Analyzer to view the SystemOut logs
D. Use the Tivoli Performance Viewer (TPV) and view the Servlet Summary reports.
Answer: D

IBM examen   certification 000-318   000-318   certification 000-318   000-318

NO.3 A system administrator has just built a WebSphere Application Server node to replace a node
lost
to disk failure. The system administrator wishes to reincorporate this node into the existing
WebSphere Application Server cell and use the prior configuration information. Unfortunately, the
backup of the cell is extremely out of date. What should the system administrator use to
accomplish this task?
A. wsadmin
B. addNode
C. wsimport
D. manageprofiles
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-318   certification 000-318   000-318 examen   000-318 examen

NO.4 A system administrator has added a server cluster as a member of a service integration bus.
The
system administrator needs to configure one messaging engine for each server in this cluster and
to have a failover location for each messaging engine. Which messaging engine policy should the
system administrator configure to achieve this?
A. Scalability
B. High availability
C. Scalability with high availability
D. Custom policy using the Quorum attribute
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-318 examen   000-318

NO.5 A system administrator needs to control which staff members have access to manage certain
application servers. They choose to use fine grained control and map the staff members to only
those specific application servers to which they need access. What does the system administrator
need to do to accomplish this?
A. Add custom properties to each of the application servers with role mappings for each staff
member
B. Use an Administrative Authorization Group to map the staff members and roles to the
application servers.
C. Create a security domain and add the application servers with the staff members in the role
definitions.
D. Create a custom user registry which prevents authorization requests to the application servers
not in the desired list.
Answer: B

IBM examen   certification 000-318   000-318   certification 000-318

NO.6 A system administrator manages a WebSphere Application Server environment which uses a
Federated Repository consisting of multiple LDAP servers. The first LDAP server is the corporate,
highly-available LDAP server and contains most of the users. The second LDAP server contains
only the administrative users and is run on a local system which is restarted regularly. To
maximize the availability of the Federated Repository, what should the system administrator do?
A. Set the second LDAP server as a backup server.
B. Add both LDAP servers to the High Availability Manager's core group.
C. Use a TAI (Trust Association Interceptor) to aggregate the LDAP servers.
D. Enable Allow operations if some of the repositories are down.
Answer: D

IBM   000-318   000-318   000-318

NO.7 A system administrator needs to deploy an enterprise application to a WebSphere
Application
Server environment. Before starting the deployment process, the administrator uses the IBM
Assembly and Deploy Tool (IADT) to inspect the EAR and notices that it is enhanced. Since
enhanced EARs are not allowed in their runtime environment, the system administrator needs to
unenhance the EAR. How can the system administrator successfully remove the enhancements?
A. Use WebSphere Customization Toolbox (WCT) to unenhance the EAR.
B. Disable the application scoped resources in the application deployment descriptor.
C. Remove the META-INF/ibmconfig folder from the project before exporting the EAR.
D. Make sure that Process embedded configurations is not selected when exporting the EAR.
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-318   000-318

NO.8 Which statement is accurate regarding business-level applications?
A. A business-level application contains application binary files.
B. Only WebSphere artifacts are contained in a business-level application.
C. The business-level application function introduces new application programming interfaces
(APIs).
D. Make a Java EE application a business-level application and add it to another business-level
application.
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-318 examen   000-318 examen

NO.9 In a test environment, a system administrator has configured an external HTTP in the DMZ that
is
routing to a cluster of application servers. The administrator wants to achieve high results and
performance when routing and prioritizing incoming requests to the back-end cluster. How can the
system administrator achieve this task?
A. Configure a cluster of external HTTP servers.
B. Enable the prefer local option on the cluster members.
C. Setup a Caching Proxy server between the external web server and the application server.
D. Place an On Demand Router (ODR) between the external web servers and the application
servers.
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-318   000-318 examen   000-318

NO.10 An application development team has developed a new version of an application that needs to
be
rolled out to a selected group of users for testing while the other users can continue to access the
old version of the application. What configuration should the system administrator do in order to
achieve this?
A. Perform a rollout on an application edition.
B. Perform a rollout on an application edition and establish routing policies.
C. Install an application edition and establish routing policies.
D. Activate concurrent application editions and establish routing policies.
Answer: D

IBM   000-318 examen   000-318   000-318 examen   000-318   certification 000-318

HP HP0-J12 HP0-G11 HP0-Y12 HP0-Y11 HP0-S12 HP0-S11, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J12

Nom d'Examen: HP (Supporting ESL E-Series and EML E-Series Libraries)

Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-G11

Nom d'Examen: HP (CCI Fundamentals for Solution Architects)

Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-Y12

Nom d'Examen: HP (Building ProCurve Resilient, Adaptive Networks)

Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-Y11

Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Security 7.31)

Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-S12

Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers)

Questions et réponses: 133 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-S11

Nom d'Examen: HP (Integrating and Managing HP ProLiant ML/DL in the Enterprise)

Questions et réponses: 249 Q&As

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NO.1 What is reported by the LP/PNL sensor of an ESL E-Series tape library?
A.library door status
B.x-axis motor position
C.y-axis motor position
D.magazines and load ports status
Answer: D

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NO.2 What does the cabinet controller assembly of an ESL E-Series tape library provide a SCSI interface
to?
A.tape devices
B.library robotics
C.management interface card
D.e2400-160 Interface Controller
Answer: B

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NO.3 What can you do to speed up the power-on process while troubleshooting an EML 71e library?
A.Remove all media from the library.
B.Power-on the library with the load port door open.
C.Disable the auto audit, remembering to re-enable it and reboot the library before leaving the customer
site.
D.Configure inventory mode to bar code labels not required, remembering to reset bar code labels
required before leaving the customer site.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library component (used to carry data cartridges to a secondary cabinet) is
shown in the figure?
A.CLM arm
B.CLM controller
C.picker assembly
D.cartridge transfer robot
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the maximum cartridge slot count in an EML E-Series library?
A.325
B.470
C.505
D.595
Answer: C

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NO.6 What must be configured in CommandView TL when manually adding an ESL E-Series library?
A.library IP address
B.library serial number
C.tape drive and robot SCSI IDs
D.Interface Manager user name and password
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are possible causes of inventory failure in ESL E-Series tape libraries? (Select two.)
A.The library has a drive failure.
B.One of the clusters is disconnected.
C.The library front is facing bright sunlight.
D.Unapproved bar code labels are being used.
E.The Interface Controller is disconnected from the Fibre Channel switch.
Answer: CD

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NO.8 When is Lock Element Addressing used in the ESL E-Series library?
A.with multiple tape drive clusters
B.as an electronic lock of the access doors
C.when multiple Interface Controllers are used
D.for cross-linked libraries with three or more cabinets
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which scheme is used in the Command Line Interface for drive and slot numbers in ESL E-Series
tape libraries?
A.0 based
B.1 based
C.2 based
D.Hex based
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the purpose of the Stop button on the Operator Control Panel of ESL E-Series tape libraries?
A.to halt the robotics
B.to restart the library
C.to shut down the library
D.to pause a running backup process
Answer: A

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NO.11 For which connection, other than the cabinet controller, is the I2C network cable used in ESL E-Series
tape libraries?
A.external LANs
B.cluster controllers
C.interface management cards
D.Fibre Channel interface controllers
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which statement about an EML E-Series library is correct?
A.It allows serverless backup with only a few configuration steps if a Secure Manager license is installed.
B.The initial configuration can be done over the front panel, Command View TL or the serial port on the
robotics controller using CLI.
C.It is fully compliant with the Storage Management Initiative Specifications (SMI-S) and can be
configured with HP Storage Essentials.
D.It bridges the capabilities and features between the business-class HP StorageWorks MSL Series and
enterprise-class ESL E-Series tape libraries.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the maximum supported number of drives that can be installed in a CLM configuration?
A.40
B.44
C.60
D.64
Answer: B

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NO.14 How often is the CommandView TL Health Summary screen updated?
A.every 30 seconds
B.at 15-minute intervals
C.whenever the library status changes
D.configurable to any value up to 900 seconds
Answer: C

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NO.15 What are the main considerations when choosing a location for an EML E-Series tape library? (Select
three.)
A.floor space
B.room height
C.power requirements
D.lighting requirements
E.grounding requirements
F.distance to disk storage
Answer: ACE

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which item number represents the host Fibre Channel connections?
A.4
B.6
C.9
D.10
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which tape device attribute does the ESL E-Series tape library Interface Manager use to determine
the physical location of each tape drive in the library?
A.bus number
B.SCSI address
C.serial number
D.drive slot position
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which HP document provides the most current, supported configurations for Enterprise class libraries
in a SAN environment?
A.Service Guide
B.SAN Design Guide
C.EBS Compatibility Matrix
D.training course documentation
Answer: C

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
Which component is connected to port E1 of the cluster controller if it is in drive cluster 0 of an ESL
E-Series tape library?
A.cabinet controller
B.Interface Controller
C.lower cluster controller
D.Interface Manager card
Tape Library
Answer: A

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NO.20 How many cartridge slots can be used in an 8U drive expansion module mounted at the bottom of an
EML E-Series library?
A.48
B.87
C.94
D.103
Answer: B

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NO.21 What is the hard wired IP address of the Interface Manager card in an EML E-Series tape library on the
private network?
A.1.1.1.1
B.10.0.0.1
C.192.168.2.1
D.155.155.155.1
Answer: C

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NO.22 What is important to remember when changing from Manual to Automatic mode of the Interface
Manager of an ESL E-Series tape library?
A.All drives must be taken offline.
B.Fibre Channel cables must be unplugged.
C.Interface Controllers must be powered off first.
D.Any customizations created in Manual mode will be lost.
Answer: D

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NO.23 What are the standard cabling requirements for the Interface Manager card of an EML E-Series tape
library?
A.4 x Ethernet to interface controllers, 1 x Ethernet to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
B.4 x Ethernet to interface controllers, 1 x Fibre Channel to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
C.4 x Fibre Channel to interface controllers, 1 x Ethernet to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
D.4 x Fibre Channel to interface controllers, 1 x Fibre Channel to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
Answer: A

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NO.24 What can be connected using the vacant Ethernet port on the right side of the cabinet controller in an
ESL E-Series tape library?
A.an external LAN
B.cluster controllers
C.interface management card
D.Fibre Channel interface controllers
Answer: A

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NO.25 Click the Exhibit button.
What does Number 2 on the exhibit represent?
A.x axis motor
B.y axis motor
C.optical scanner
D.home position sensor
Answer: B

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NO.26 What are advantages of using Secure Manager EML? (Select two.)
A.It allows library partitioning.
B.Management of direct backup is allowed.
C.It provides faster access to tape devices.
D.Device level mapping is easily configured.
E.User access management is easily configured.
Answer: AD

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NO.27 With which management specification does the Command View TL Provider comply?
A.Direct Management Initiative (DMI)
B.Advanced Remote Management (ARM)
C.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
D.Storage Management Initiative Specification (SMI-S)
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which parts of the Extended Tape Library Architecture are SNIA compliant and support the Storage
Management Initiative Specifications (SMI-S)? (Select two.)
A.Secure Manager
B.Interface Manager
C.Interface Controller
D.Robotics Controller
E.Command View Tape Library
Answer: BE

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NO.29 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library configuration is shown in the Operator Control Panel Library screen?
A.last cabinet
B.primary cabinet
C.secondary cabinet
D.stand-alone cabinet
Answer: B

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NO.30 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library component does the exhibit display?
A.cluster controller
B.cabinet controller
C.Interface Manager
D.Interface Controller
Answer: C

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Nom d'Examen: HP (HP ProCurve Routing Switch Essentials v5.21)

Questions et réponses: 57 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-841

Nom d'Examen: HP (Designing and Implementing HP SAN Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 187 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-918

Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Storage Data Protector 6.0 Fundamentals for Windows)

Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-085

Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Desiging HP Superdome Server Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 201 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-082

Nom d'Examen: HP (OpenVMS Advanced System Administration.Performance. Support)

Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 How can you configure a mixed media library with Data Protector?
A.Set up a MultiPath device.
B.Set up one library definition per media type.
C.Set the media type manually on the library slots.
D.DP automatically configures the different media slots.
Correct:B

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NO.2 What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify file system objects in the
database? (Select three.)
A.device
B.filenames
C.hostname
D.mountpoint
E.description
F.rawdisk sections
Correct:C D E

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NO.3 By default, which file is the Data Protector Database recovery file?
A.obdb.dat
B.obrindex.dat
C.obdatafiles.dat
D.obdbrecovery.dat
Correct:B

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NO.4 You are not able to configure a changer device on a remote media agent with the Data Protector
SSE (Single Server Edition). What can you do to resolve this problem?
A.Configure host access to the LUN.
B.Install the required device driver for the library.
C.Disable the RSM service on the agent system.
D.Upgrade Data Protector to support remote devices.
Correct:D

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NO.5 Which Data Protector feature simplifies shared access of several hosts to a physical device?
A.redundant paths
B.multipath devices
C.device locking mechanism
D.multiple device connections
Correct:B

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NO.6 Between which instances is data moved during a disk staging object copy process?
A.Media Agent and Disk Agent
B.Media Agent and Media Agent
C.Backup Session Manager and Disk Agent
D.Backup Session Manager and Media Agent
Correct:B

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NO.7 A tape library with two drives is connected to two hosts (host A and host B) using SCSI. Each
host is accessing one drive through a dedicated SCSI connection. Host B also has access to the
robotics interface. Which statement is true in this configuration?
A.This configuration is not possible in a SCSI environment because all hosts need physical access to the
robotics controller.
B.Host A will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations for the local
drive.
C.Host B will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations.
D.Both hosts A and B will require a "direct library" configuration to allow shared network control of the
robotics.
Correct:C

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NO.8 Which command checks the Data Protector services, the media management database
consistency, and that there is at least one backup of the Data Protector database?
A.omnicheck
B.omnihealth
C.omnidbcheck
D.omnihealthcheck
Correct:D

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NO.9 How can you prevent multiple hosts from simultaneously attempting to utilize a device in one
Data Protector cell?
A.logical lock
B.device lock
C.lock names
D.physical lock
Correct:C

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NO.10 How can you collect debug files from distributed Data Protector clients in the environment?
A.Use the omnidlc command.
B.Use the devbra collector.
C.Use the omnitrig process.
D.Use the Web Reporting GUI.
Correct:A

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NO.11 Which media agent program can be used for interactively sending SCSI commands to a tape
library?
A.lma
B.bma
C.uma
D.cma
E.mma
Correct:C

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NO.12 What must first be done on a Windows NT cell manager before upgrading Data Protector to
version 5.5?
A.Ensure that a Windows installation server is installed.
B.Ensure the current Data Protector version is at the highest patch level.
C.Install the latest Windows NT service pack.
D.Upgrade Windows NT to a higher Windows version.
Correct:D

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NO.13 What is the maximum recommended size of a file depot for Windows?
A.50GB
B.100GB
C.200GB
D.600GB
Correct:A

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NO.14 What communication technique is used for disk agent to media agent data transfer if the agents
do NOT reside on the same host?
A.RMI over LAN
B.remote agents
C.stream sockets
D.pipe mechanisms
Correct:C

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NO.15 What are the benefits of enhanced incremental over conventional incremental backups?
(Select two.)
A.higher backup throughput
B.detects renamed and removed files
C.backup detects files with attribute changes
D.backups are more secure due to better encryption
E.files with longer names are detected and backed up
Correct:B C

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NO.16 What is a media pool?
A.a collection of media of the same age
B.a logical collection of media that belong together
C.a concept that enables faster backup and restore
D.a physical collection of media that is used by the same device
Correct:B

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NO.17 Which Data Protector process controls an active backup session?
A.the DA (disk agent) on the Cell Client
B.the MA (media agent) on the Cell Client
C.the CRS (cell request server) on the Cell Manager
D.the BSM (backup session manager) on the Cell Manager
Correct:D

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NO.18 Which interconnect technology is supported for shared tape device resources in a cluster
where the Cell Manager is installed in the cluster?
A.SCSI
B.Ethernet
C.Fibre Channel
D.SATA and SCSI
Correct:C

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NO.19 Which hardware is automatically reconfigured by ASR (Automated System Recovery) if that
hardware is replaced with a different type or size as part of the disaster recovery process?
A.Hard drive
B.Video card
C.Network card
D.Host bus adapter
Correct:A

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NO.20 The Data Protector Backup Session Manager (BSM) runs on which system or systems in the
cell?
A.client only
B.cell manager only
C.client and cell manager
D.dedicated installation server
Correct:B

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