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Code d'Examen: ST0-058
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundations 5.1 for Windows (STS))
Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that is directly accessed by a
filesystem?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. subvolume
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which advantage does the VxCache feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. improved performance of dynamic volumes
B. hardware-independent, up-to-date remote copies of data
C. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
D. fast recovery of disk group configurations
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that contains plex objects?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which advantage does the Data Change Object (DCO) feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows provide?
A. optimized resynchronization of stale volume data
B. ability to grow volumes online
C. control of volumes across heterogeneous systems
D. fast resynchronization of mirrored volumes after a system crash
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which command can you use to set the read policy on a plex in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. vxvol
B. vxplex
C. vxassist
D. vxedit
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows (SFW) component that represents the
available space that SFW can use to assign to volumes?
A. public region
B. private region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout where data is arranged both
sequentially and contiguously within a single plex?
A. concatenation
B. striping
C. mirroring
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that stores information about
virtual objects?
A. private region
B. public region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which advantage is provided by the SmartMove feature in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. reduction of mirror synchronization time
B. rebuilding of redundancy in the case of a disk failure
C. automatic failover in the case of a path failure
D. consistent secondary volumes using Veritas Volume Replicator
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is one difference between a basic disk and a dynamic disk?
A. private region
B. application data
C. volume
D. resides on a single plex
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which action in the Veritas Enterprise Administrator console should you use to move a set of subdisks
from one dynamic disk group to a new dynamic disk group?
A. Split Dynamic Disk Group
B. Remove Disks from Dynamic Disk Group
C. Move Dynamic Disk Group Objects
D. Join Dynamic Disk Group
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the smallest unit of storage in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. subdisk
B. plex
C. volume
D. partition
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which advantage is provided by the Write-order Fidelity feature of Veritas Volume Replicator in Veritas
Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. consistent secondary volumes
B. fast resynchronization of mirrored secondary volumes
C. RAID 5 logging on secondary volumes
D. fast updates to secondary volumes
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which advantage does the hot relocation feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows
provide?
A. rebuilding of redundancy when there is a disk failure
B. automatic synchronization of replicated data
C. fast synchronization of RAID 5 volumes after a system crash
D. optimized synchronization of stale volume data
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that is a structured collection of
subdisks that represents one copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. dynamic disk
D. dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is a best practice when installing Dymanic Multi-pathing for Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. have a single physical path to storage
B. turn off the hardware cache on external storage
C. have all physical paths to storage enabled
D. physically remove all the HBAs from the server
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which three advantages does the Veritas Volume Replicator feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1
for Windows provide? (Select three.)
A. hardware-independent copies of data that are consistent
B. dynamic bandwidth throttling
C. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
D. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
E. replication over multiple TCP connections
Answer: ABE

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NO.18 Which advantage does the FlashSnap feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. hardware-independent, point-in-time copies of data
B. hardware-independent, synchronous remote copies of data
C. fast recovery of disk group configuration
D. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout that achieves redundancy by
striping data with parity across multiple disks?
A. RAID 5
B. striped mirroring
C. concatenation
D. mirroring
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that holds a single complete
copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. subdisk
D. LUN
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-10X
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 5 for Unix (STS))
Questions et réponses: 198 Q&As

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NO.1 You place six physical disks under Volume Manager control to create 10GB of volume. You want to
use this volume as an archive directory. You need to create a volume that will store three copies of the
archived data. Which command will you use to create a volume with three plexes?
A.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
B.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
C.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
D.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are auditing a current storage environment that is not utilizing storage tiering. The information
gained from the audit is to be used in a new storage tiering design that will have 4 tiers (Tiers 1-4). You
need to determine the location for archive data which needs to be accessible but is not used heavily.
Where should you store this data?
A.Tier 1: High-end storage arrays with fast, reliable network connections.
B.Tier 2: High-end arrays, but performance is not a priority.
C.Tier 3: Mid-range to low-end storage arrays with fast, reliable network connections.
D.Tier 4: low-cost media, such as tape, with little consideration given to performance.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You have installed Storage Foundation 5.0 Standard server with a number of hosts. You want to
centrally monitor and manage the hosts. You also want to generate reports for the hosts and the storage
resources that the hosts consume. What should you do?
A.Install the Veritas Quick I/O option on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
B.Install Veritas Storage Foundation Management Server on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
C.Install Veritas Storage Foundation Management Host on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
D.Upgrade Storage Foundation 5.0 Standard to Storage Foundation 5.0 Enterprise.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The vxprint command output for volume vol07 indicates that it has three plexes. How will you
determine which plexes are used for data?
A.Note the lengths. Data plexes are all the same length.
B.Note the STATE field. Non-data plexes will be indicated by the value: LOG.
C.Note the STATE field. Data plexes will be indicated by the value: MIRROR.
D.Note the RECORD TYPE field. Data plexes are designated with PL.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two restrictions does relayout place on the administration of a volume while it is in progress?
(Select two.)
A.During a relayout, you cannot create a sparse plex.
B.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of mirrors in a volume.
C.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of subdisks in a volume.
D.During a relayout, you cannot create a snapshot of a volume.
E.During a relayout, you cannot create a backup of a volume.
Answer: AD

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NO.6 You need to create a volume for the HR department. You need to mount a file system with a high
demand for I/O throughput. You are aware that spanning the volume across multiple disks will increase
the I/O performance. Which risk should you be aware of when spanning the volume across multiple
disks?
A.Write throughput degradation
B.Single disk failure causes volume failure
C.Requirement for disk redundancy
D.Poor I/O performance
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the default limit to the number of subdisks that can be attached to a single plex?
A.1024
B.2048
C.4096
D.Unlimited
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which form of Disk Spanning allows you to map data in equally-sized chunks alternating across
multiple disks and is also known as interleaving?
A.Striping
B.Concatenation
C.Mirroring
D.Parity
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are monitoring a file system on a Solaris operating system using Veritas Volume Manager when
the following kernel message appears: WARNING: msgcnt x: mesg 069: V-2-69: memory usage specified
by the vxfs:vxfs_ninode and vxfs:vx_bc_bufhwm parameters exceeds available memory; the system may
hang under heavy load. You need to resolve this error. What should you do?
A.Increase the value of one or both parameters to 100% of physical memory or to 100% of kernel virtual
memory
B.Remove either the physical memory parameter or the kernel virtual memory parameter.
C.Leave the parameters at current levels and disregard the system message because it is a false
message.
D.Reduce the value of one or both parameters to less than 50% of physical memory or to 66% of kernel
virtual memory
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are responsible for administering the Storage Foundation for Sybase server. You want to remove a
mounted volume. What should you do first to ensure you are able to remove the mounted volume?
A.Remove the snapshot from the associated volume.
B.Recursively remove all plexes and subdisks.
C.Disassociate the snapshot from the associated volume.
D.Unmount the file system.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which structure records are stored in the private region? (Each correct Answer presents part of the
solution. Select three.)
A.Disk group configuration
B.Disk and disk group ID
C.File system metadata
D.Disk group kernel log
E.Partition tables
Answer: ABD

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NO.12 You want to allow non-layered volume to change to layered stripe-mirror volume while remaining online.
What is the correct procedure to perform this conversion?
A.Convert the volume, stop the volume, remount the file system, and start the volume.
B.Unmount the file system, stop the volume, convert the volume, start the volume, and remount the file
system.
C.Resync the volume, convert the volume, and mirror the volume.
D.Stop the volume and then convert the volume.
Answer: C

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NO.13 The 'Administer' button in the Storage Foundation Management Server user interface for a host is
continually red, and the vxsvc32 agent is listed as DOWN.
How do you solve this problem?
A.Reconfigure the Storage Foundation management Server.
B.Reinstall the agent.
C.Restart Storage Foundation Management Server.
D.Change the types.ini configuration file on the Central Management Server.
Answer: D

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NO.14 How many free partitions do you need to encapsulate a boot disk?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is the minimum number of plexes required for true mirroring to provide redundancy of data?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which physical storage device is the equivalent to a virtual volume?
A.A disk
B.A partition
C.A block
D.A directory
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which three are the database agents that are supported by Storage Foundation High Availability
version? (Select three.)
A.Informix
B.DB/2
C.Ingress
D.Oracle
E.Sybase
F.SQL
Answer: BDE

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NO.18 You are working with the Storage Foundation Intelligent Storage Provisioning feature, to create a new
mirrored volume. To prevent system failure, you want to ensure that you are able to perform a recovery of
mirrored volumes in minimum response time.
What should you do?
A.Create a Dirty Region Log.
B.Create a Data Change Map log.
C.Create a RAID-5 log.
D.Create a Snap object log.
Answer: A

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NO.19 You have large number of mirrored volumes, and the resynchronization process on mirrored volumes
will take lot of time. You want to address enable Dirty Region Logging (DRL) and find out the cause why it
takes a long time for resynchronization. You want to check the status of DRL logging to see if it is already
enabled.
How will you accomplish this task?
A.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $DCOVOL option
B.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $DRLVOL option
C.Use the vxprint command with the -F%dcologging $DCOVOL option
D.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $$DCONAME option
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which command will you use to determine the operating mode of vxconfigd?
A.vxdctl enable
B.vxdctl mode
C.vxmode
D.ps -ef |grep vxconfig
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ST0-12X
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Cluster Server 5 for Unix(STS))
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Which resource is NOT considered by Veritas Cluster Server when determining whether a service
group is online or not?
A. onOnly
B. OnOff
C. failover
D. parallel
Answer: A

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NO.2 What does the Veritas Cluster Server Cluster Manager Web Console require for high availability?
A. notification set to 0
B. a Microson Windows workstation
C. the vcsweb user account
D. a virtuallP address
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two are valid settings for FailoverPolicy? (Choose two.)
A. priority
B. RoundRobin
C. Order
D. Failover
E. SystemUst
Answer: A B

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NO.4 You have a service group dependency:
If the child group faults, the parent group is taken offline. If the parent group faults, the child group remains
online. Which type of dependency is this an example of?
A. firm
B. hard
C. son
D. remote
Answer: A

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NO.5 How do you customize Veritas Cluster Server default behavior to alert someone whenever there is only
one heartbeat in a Veritas Cluster Server cluster?
A. The preinstalled violation trigger does this with no customization required.
B. Install the injeopardy trigger and customize it to perform the required alerting.
C. Configure the notifier to execute a customized script to perform the required alerting.
D. Develop a custom resource type and agent to monitor the Veritas Cluster Server heartbeat resources.
Answer: B

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NO.6 what are two characteristics of a nard service group dependency? (choose two.)
A. Both parent and child groups fail over if a critical resource in the child group faults.
B. Only online local hard dependencies are supported.
C. If a critical resource in the parent group faults, the child group is taken offline before the parent group.
D. Bringing the parent online is allowed if the child is offline.
E. Only two parents and one child o group can be configured in a nard dependency.
Answer: A B

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NO.7 You stopped Veritas Cluster Server on system node13. You now need to remove this node from the
cluster configuration. When you attempt to do this, you get an error message. What could cause this
error?
A. One or more system List attributes still contains node13.
B. Veritas Cluster Server must be completely shut down on all nodes.
C. The LL T driver on node13 was not stopped.
D. The GAB daemon on node13 was not stopped.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are adding a system named Systemc to an existing two-system cluster.
What must you do atter installing Veritas Cluster Server and configuring cluster communications on the
new system?
A. run hastart -newnode on the new system
B. run hasys -frorce System C on the new system
C. run haclus -adonode SystemC on any system
D. run hastart on the new system
Answer: D

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NO.9 whicn feature of Veritas Cluster Server allows you to keep applications in separate groups while still
allowing control of the order they start?
A. service group dependencies
B. complementary events
C. replicated data clusters
D. notifications
Answer: A

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NO.10 A Veritas Cluster Server design calls for a failover database service group and a failover middleware
service group to be dependent on each other such that the database and middleware are always running
on the same system.
Which type of service group dependency satisfies this design requirement?
A. online local
B. online remote
C. online global
D. online together
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is a characteristic of Veritas Cluster Server service group dependencies?
A. Each parent service group can link with only three child service groups; however, a child service group
is not limited to the number of links to parent service groups.
B. If a parent service group with an online local firm group dependency faults, it will take the
corresponding child
C. A child service group will remain online if the dependent parent service group with an online local firm
group dependency faults.
D. A service group cannot be a child service group if its parent service group is a child of another group.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the location of the main Veritas Cluster Server configuration file?
A. /op/VRTSvcs/conf/config/
B. /etc/VRTSvcs/conf/
C./etc/VRTSvcs/conf/config/
D. /op/VRTSvcs/confi
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which network resource combination would you use for failovers of virtual IP addresses across
interfaces on a single system when NICs are connected to different subnets?
A. IP/NIC
B. IPMultiNIC/MultiNICA
C. IPMultiNICB/MultiNICB
D. IPMultiNICC/MultiNICC
Answer: B

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NO.14 A legacy managed host is a system managed by Storage Foundation Management Server and runs
__ .
A. Storage Foundation 4.x
B. Foundation Suite 3.x
C. Storage Replicator 4.x
D. Veritas Enterprise Administrator 3.x
Answer: A

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NO.15 What should be expected during a failover when a service group is partially ONLINE?
A. The service group will become fully ONLINE on the target system.
B. The service group will become partially ONLINE on the target system.
C. The service group will go OFFLINE and remain OFFLINE.
D. The service group will become OFFLINE temporarily on the target system.
Answer: B

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NO.16 You are designing a large Veritas Cluster Server cluster. One of the requirements from the service
level agreement is that applications will be automatically moved from one system to another if the first
system's processor usage exceeds a configured threshold value.
Which component do you incorporate into the design to accomplish this?
A. ToleranceLimit service group attribute
B. Load failover policy
C. cpuusage trigger
D. UseCPU cluster attribute
Answer: C

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NO.17 You stopped Veritas Cluster Server on a system and completely removed the system from the Veritas
Cluster Server configuration. You now need to stop the GAB driver without shutting down the system.
Which command accomplishes this?
A. gabconfig-U
B. gabetl stop
C. gab-stop
D. gabdaemon uninstall
Answer: A

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NO.18 During a test of a NIC resource, the Veritas Cluster Server engine log indicates that the service group
and the IP resource enter the FAULTED state on all systems in the cluster. The NIC resource enters the
ONLINE state atter the root cause of the fault is corrected.
Which default attribute setting allows the service group to attempt to start without manual intervention?
A. AutoStart
B. AutoClear
C. AutoRestart
D. AutoFailover
Answer: C

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NO.19 You need to remove the system named node04 from a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster.
What is the command to failover any service groups running, then stop Veritas Cluster Server on that
system?
A. hastop -sys node04 -evacuate
B. haevac -remove -sys node04
C. haconf -stop -evac -sys node04
D. hasys node04 -local -failover -stop
Answer: A

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NO.20 You have a three-system cluster.
The cluster runs an application that depends on a database.
The application and database do not need to run on the same system.
If the database faults, you want the application to continue to run, unless the database cannot be
restarted on another system. Which type of service group dependency do you create to ensure this
behavior?
A. online global son, where the database is the parent
B. online global soft, where the application is the parent
C. online global firm, where the application is the parent
D. online global firm, where the database is the parent
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ASC-099
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC Archiving and eDiscovery 2010)
Questions et réponses: 94 Q&As

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NO.1 Who will be responsible for post-engagement technical support if a consultant fails to educate the
customer on the support process?
A. the consultant
B. Symantec Support
C. the customer
D. the project manager
Answer: B

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NO.2 In order to back up Enterprise Vault with NetBackup, which Enterprise Vault components require the
NetBackup client?
A. the Exchange Server, the EV Server, and the Discovery Accelerator Server
B. the Exchange Server, the EV Server, and the SQL Server
C. the EV Server and the DA Server
D. the EV Server and the SQL Server
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two prerequisites are required to install the Enterprise Vault Administration Console on a
stand-alone workstation? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Internet Explorer Web Controls
B. Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 SP1 or higher
C. Microsoft Windows Administration Tools Pack
D. Microsoft Internet Information Services
E. Microsoft Exchange Management Console
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Where can a consultant look to find diagnostic logging from an Enterprise Vault server installation?
A. Application Event Log
B. ev_client_log_[timestamp].txt
C. Symantec Enterprise Vault Event Log
D. EVinstall.log
Answer: D

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NO.5 How many Index Server Groups can a consultant associate with a Vault Store?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. eight
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the minimum amount of memory required to support 64-bit Indexing?
A. 2GB
B. 4GB
C. 8GB
D. 16GB
Answer: C

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NO.7 What should a consultant do when configuring the pagefile on a system running the Indexing Service.?
A. The pagefile should be located on volume where active indexes are located for best performance.
B. The pagefile should be set to be managed by the OS.
C. The pagefile should be set to 1x of the RAM.
D. The pagefile should be set to 1.5x of the RAM.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What are two valid names for the scripts provided on the Enterprise Vault media to assist in configuring
the Vault Service Account (VSA)? (Select two.)
A. SetEVServicePermissions.ps1
B. SetEVExchangePermissions.ps1
C. SetEVThrottlingPolicy.ps1
D. SetExchangeThrottlingPolicy.ps1
E. SetEVExchThrottingPermissions.ps1
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 Which two are benefits of using Data Classification Services with EV? (Select two.)
A. re-classify content that has already been archived
B. assign retention categories based on the item's content
C. automatically delete emails that are not critical business records
D. automatically place items on E-Discovery legal hold
E. direct integration with the Clearwell E-Discovery Platform
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 What are two main components of Data Classification Services (DCS)? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server
B. Internet Information Services (IIS)
C. Oracle
D. Symantec Data Loss Prevention
E. Automatic Classification Engine
Answer: C,D

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NO.11 A consultant just deployed Domino Mailbox Archiving and is about to configure the Enable Mailbox
Message. Which file would need to be edited and placed in the root folder of Enterprise Vault installation?
A. EnableMailboxMessage.nsf
B. EVMessages.nsf
C. EnableMailboxMessageDomino.nsf
D. EVEnableMessage.nsf
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which two Enterprise Vault components require a dedicated SQL database? (Select two.)
A. Vault Store Group
B. Index Server Group
C. Vault Store
D. Index Volume
E. Vault Store partition
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 What should a consultant recommend to a customer as a post-engagement service offering?
A. ongoing tech support
B. review of the configuration report
C. thirty day post deployment guidance
D. periodic assessment
Answer: D

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NO.14 A consultant must calculate the EV archival rate while delivering an assessment service. Which
database should a consultant query to calculate the archival rate?
A. Directory Database
B. Fingerprint Database
C. Vault Store Database
D. FSA Reporting Database
Answer: C

Symantec   ASC-099   ASC-099

NO.15 Which two ways should a consultant prioritize identifiable project risks as part of a mitigation strategy?
(Select two.)
A. probability of risk
B. sequence of risk occurrence
C. level of inconvenience to the customer
D. impact to the project success
E. visibility to senior management
Answer: A,D

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Code d'Examen: ASC-093
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC Data Loss Prevention 2010)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 What needs to be done with unused Network Interface Cards (NIC) on the Enforce server?
A. They need to be configured to utilize Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
B. They need to be disabled.
C. They need to be configured with a static IP address.
D. They need to be assigned with 127.0.0.1 as their IP address.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Symantec Data Loss Prevention can be configured to populate custom attributes pulled from a
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) server. In addition to LiveLdapLookup.properties, which
other file must be modified to configure custom attributes.?
A. Plugins.properties
B. Manager.properties
C. Jdbc.properties
D. Aggregator.properties
Answer: A

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NO.3 When implementing an automated response rule, what must be done to make the rule execute?
A. select Incident All and click the Response Rule button to execute
B. enable response rules from the Settings page
C. add the response rule to the appropriate policy
D. Automated response rules are effective as soon as they are created
Answer: C

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NO.4 If an Enforce server is configured to use Active Directory (AD) authentication for logins, which statement
is true?
A. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been assigned a role.
B. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been added to the
krb5.ini or krb5.conf file.
C. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as their Organizational Unit has been
assigned to a Policy Group.
D. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have a matching user name in
Enforce.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A user has determined that many incidents are showing 100 matches per incident from the default PCI
policy template. The user needs to increase this limit to better reflect the most critical files with the most
violations. Which change will increase the number of maximum matches per incident?
A. change the value for DI.MaxViolations
B. change the value for IncidentDetection.patternConditionMaxViolations
C. change the value for EDM.MaximumNumberOfMatchesToReturn
D. change the value for Incident Threshold within the relevant policy
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the best method for deploying a policy to Endpoint agents that makes use of Index Matching.
A. create the policy using Described Content, then "and" the Index Matching statement into the policy
B. Policies that use Index Matching cannot be deployed to Endpoint agents.
C. create the policy using the Index Matching statement, then "and" a Described Content statement into
the policy
D. combine all Index Matching statements that are to be deployed to Endpoint agents into one single
policy
Answer: A

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NO.7 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) Network Prevent supports load balancing among multiple Prevent servers
in high volume networks. In the absence of a network load balancing device, what is the best practice for
enabling load balance among multiple Prevent servers?
A. enable Load Balancing in the Settings, Servers Overview page
B. In the case of Network Prevent for Email, the upstream MTA is configured with the IP address of each
Prevent server. This is done in a similar fashion for the web proxy server(s) with the IP address of each
Network Prevent for web server.
C. A third Network Interface Card (NIC) is required for each Prevent server to be used as a "heartbeat
monitor" to the other Prevent servers. Once installed and configured, the Prevent servers act as a virtual
cluster.
D. configure a DNS alias to point to the IP address of each Prevent server, also known as a DNS Round
Robin
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is a best practice to be used for monitoring mail traffic in an environment that uses Transport
Layer Security (TLS) for their outbound email?
A. deploy Network Prevent for Email
B. turn TLS off on the outbound email server
C. import the TLS certificate from the outbound email server onto the Network Monitor detection server
D. Data Loss Prevention is not capable of viewing TLS traffic.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Endpoint agents CANNOT monitor data copies to what?
A. CD/DVD
B. network shares
C. USB (for example, thumb drives)
D. printers/faxes
Answer: B

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NO.10 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can use custom SSL certificates to secure communication between the
Endpoint server and Endpoint agents. What is the name of the tool that is used to create these
certificates?
A. endpointssl.exe
B. endpointkeytool.exe
C. sslkeytool.exe
D. endpointsslkey.exe
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ST0-136
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec System Recovery 2011 Technical Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 111 Q&As

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NO.1 how do the client computers process backup policies submitted by the Symantec System Recovery
2011 Management Solution?
A. The Notification Server pushes the backup jobs totheclient computers beforeeachbackup
B. Client computers pun the backup policies down from Notification server and processthem.
C. Client computers run the backup policies from Notification Server and process them,
D. The Notification Server pushes the backup jobs to the client computers every night
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which command line option would be used to divide a recovery point file into separate parts using
Symantec System Recovery 2011 Linux Edition?
A. -raw [number]
B. -seg (number)
C. -span (number]
D. -set (number]
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which requirement needs to tie met, to create a cold backup from a non-functioning system using the
Symantec Recovery Disk?
A. An active partition must be set
B. A valid license key for Symantec System Recovery 2011 needs to be used.
C. The computer needs to first have Symantec System Recovery 2011 installed.
D. A custom Symantec Recovery Disk needs to be used.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which command can be run to allow network access to the computer during a Unix-based recovery
from a Symantec Recovery Disk.?
A. network eth0start
B. ifup
C. service network up
D. eth0service restart
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-136   ST0-136   ST0-136

NO.5 Which two drive types can be used as the destination drive in die Copy My Hard Drive Wizard? (Select
two)
A. SATA attached hard drive
B. share on a different Windows Server
C. Blu-ray drive
D. network-attached storage
E. USB attached hard drive
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 A system administrator would like to verify whether a recent virus on their network exists In an image
before restoring. What is the recommended method to make the flies available for a virus scan to check
for this?
A. Restore the image to the machine, then run a virus scan.
B. Mount the Image In Windows and run a virus scan.
C. Restore files to an isolated directory using Recovery Point Browser
D. Use Google Desktop to access the files.
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-136   ST0-136

NO.7 A virus attack has corrupted the first sector of a physical hard drive. Fortunately, a recovery point of the
system drive is available to restore with the Symantec Recovery Disk.
Which option must be selected during the restore?
A. Restore master boot record
B. Use Restore Anyware
C. Check for file system errors after recovery
D. Verify recovery point before recovery
Answer: A

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NO.8 An administrator of the Symantec System Recovery 2011 (SSR) Management Solution needs to
determine which managed client computers have an unsupported version of SSR installed.
Which web part name of the Home screen would display this for the administrator?
A. Alerts and Failures
B. Backup Status
C. Operating System Statistics
D. License Status
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which option should be used to convert a recovery point where a FAT32 file system Is the
destination1?
A. Run windows Mint-Setup
B. Utilize temporary storage location
C. Split virtual disk into 2 GB (vmdk) files
D. Rename file to DOS standard
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which wizard should an administrator select from the Symantec Recovery Disk to Degin a Virtual to
Physical conversion?
A. virtual Machine Restore
B. One Time Physical Conversion
C. Convert to Physical
D. Recover My Computer
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which software should De installed on the remote client first to be managed by Symantec System
Recovery 2011 (SSR) Management Solution?
A. Symantec SSR software
B. Symantec installation Manager
C. Symantec SSR plug-in
D. Symantec Management (Altiris) Agent
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two options are required to enable booting when using the Recover Drive Wizard to restore the
operating system onto a new, empty, hard disk? (Select two)
A. Resize drive
B. Check file system for errors
C. Assign drive letter
D. Restore original disk signature
E. Set drive active
F. Verify recovery point before restore
Answer: D,E

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NO.13 when viewing the backup status of a computer in Symantec System Recovery 2011 Management
Solution, which two Backup, reporting statuses can a user view for the selected drives? (Select two.)
A. Full Status Reporting
B. DriveStatus Reporting
C. Group Status Reporting
D. Backup Status Reporting
E. No Status Reporting
Answer: A,E

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NO.14 Consider the command syntax below
ssr -r <file> -d <destination>
What does the switch -r accomplish in Symantec System Recovery 2011 Linux Edition?
A. searches the recovery point for a specific file
B. restoresthespecified file to a location
C. lists the partition and file types In the recovery point
D. reboots the computer when the restore is complete
Answer: D

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NO.15 To prevent unauthorized access to recovery points when stored on a network share, what should be
enabled in the Job definition?
A. T-10 encryption
B. Pretty GoodPrivacy(PGP) encryption
C. SymantecEndpointEncryption
D. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) encryption
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 250-402
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1)
Questions et réponses: 133 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator receives notification of a new vulnerability threat from Symantec Deepsight Alert
Services. The alert includes the name of an executable that should be prevented from running. Which
policy should the administrator configure?
A. Malware Blocking policy
B. Application Metering policy
C. Custom Inventory policy
D. Software Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.2 After customizing the preboot configuration files, previously created configurations need to be updated.
Each file is highlighted and then the option to rebuild them is selected. After all items have been updated,
the "Save" button on the policy is selected to ensure all changes are stored in the database. However,
after several hours or even a day, the configuration files on the PXE servers maintain an old date instead
of the new date. Why do the PXE servers have the old date?
A. The PXE servers are missing from the policy assigned to the preboot configurations because several
policies were modified at the same time.
B. SBS Services must first be restarted to accept new policy changes from the server even though the
agent has received the policy.
C. The PXE Server configuration policy must also be updated at the same time as the preboot
configurations.
D. The preboot configuration policy changes are already saved and have been lost due to saving the
policy again.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A system administrator deployed the Inventory Solution Agent Plug-in to 15,000 endpoints across a
company. Subsequently, the administrator realizes that the performance of the Notification Server is
slower during the inventory scan times. Which two actions can be taken within Inventory Solution to
reduce the processing impact on the Notification Server during these times? (Select two.)
A. Create multiple policies on different schedules for subsets of computers.
B. Create a custom weekly schedule instead of using the default weekly schedule.
C. Enable the priority setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
D. Use the AeXRunControl.exe program to randomize the collection of inventory.
E. Use the throttling setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 A system administrator discovers that an unauthorized piece of software called "Solitaire 2099" has
been installed on company desktops. The software installs a browser toolbar that prevents the use of the
company standard browser toolbar and needs to be removed immediately. The administrator has also
been instructed to identify all users that are playing the game so that they can receive a private email
about the situation. Which two capabilities of Inventory Solution will help the administrator? (Select two.)
A. Inventory Solution provides data about the number of installed instances of an application. B.Inventory
Solution automatically associates software titles to users.
B. Inventory Solution automatically determines unauthorized software titles.
C. Inventory Solution tracks how often an application is executed.
D. Inventory Solution identifies harmful applications stored on local hard drives.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1? (Select two.)
A. Service Desk
B. CMDB Solution
C. pcAnywhere
D. Wise Package Studio Professional
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: C,E

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NO.6 A patch administrator is preparing to deploy new patches. The administrator needs to avoid applying
Microsoft updates to the wrong operating systems. How should the administrator deploy the patches?
A. by creating a Software Update policy to distribute the updates
B. by configuring the Import Patch Data for Microsoft task and only including applicable updates
C. by staging the update for each operating system in the test environment
D. by only applying updates to the Target with applicable computers when creating a Software Update
policy
Answer: A

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NO.7 An administrator needs to use the Deployment Solution task listed below in a job that will be used to
capture an image of a computer running Windows XP. Prepare for Image capture Which two configuration
steps must be completed before the task can be created? (Select two.)
A. enable PXE
B. create a system configuration
C. create a sysprep token
D. upload the applicable deploy.cab file
E. add an OS license key
Answer: D,E

Symantec   certification 250-402   250-402   certification 250-402

NO.8 What are two prerequisites for installing and configuring IT Analytics? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Reporting and Analysis Services
B. Adobe Flash
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Datamining Viewer Controls
D. Microsoft Office Web Components 11 (2003)
E. Microsoft Silverlight
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 The IT Security department wants to prevent all versions of a particular file sharing application from
running on company computers. Where must the software resource be defined before it can be prevented
from running?
A. Software Inventory scan
B. Software Catalog
C. Software Library
D. Software Update policy
Answer: D

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NO.10 A system administrator is testing the delivery of an application. During deployment, the administrator
determines that the install path of an MSI needed to be changed without modifying the MSI. The
administrator needs to change the command line parameters of the install package. Which policies would
be affected when the default install command line of a software package is modified in the Software
Catalog?
A. policies that are assigned to a non-managed computer
B. policies that leverage Software Discovery
C. policies currently referencing the modified entry
D. policies referencing staged software updates
Answer: C

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NO.11 A group of computers are received from a computer manufacturer with a list of corresponding MAC
addresses. To facilitate the imaging of the computers, the list is modified and then imported to
Deployment Solution, creating new computer accounts. In a lab, all computers are started and booted into
WinPE automation. In the console, a job is assigned to each computer appropriate to its hardware; but the
computers never get the tasks or run the jobs. What is a likely reason for this behavior?
A. The number of concurrent tasks assigned for imaging is overwhelming the SQL server.
B. The computer records in the database are missing necessary key information to properly identify the
computers.
C. The network addresses assigned to the computers in the lab are outside the SBS configured ranges.
D. New computers must first check in and be given a GUID in the console before being assigned a name
and corresponding jobs or tasks.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are two prerequisites for installing Out-of-Band Management.? (Select two.)
A. SQL Server configured in mixed authentication mode
B. SQL Server configured in Windows authentication mode
C. Symantec Management Platform
D. SQL Analysis Service installed
E. SSL/TLS
Answer: A,C

Symantec   250-402   250-402

NO.13 A software was virtualized during a Managed Software Delivery installation. Which method must be
used to manage the layer?
A. Virtual Composer task
B. Software Virtualization Command task
C. Package Delivery task
D. Quick Delivery task
Answer: B

Symantec examen   certification 250-402   250-402 examen   250-402

NO.14 An administrator is reviewing software resources in the software catalog. There is a duplicate for a
software resource. The administrator has initiated the Resolve Duplicate Software Resources Wizard and
selected the option to merge duplicate resources. What will happen to the duplicate entries in the
Software Catalog?
A. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and keeps the duplicates.
B. It updates the original software resource with both unique identifiers and the duplicate is deleted.
C. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and the entry with the newest
timestamp is deleted.
D. It updates the original software resources with the information from both entries and the entry with the
oldest timestamp is deleted.
Answer: B

Symantec examen   certification 250-402   250-402   250-402

NO.15 When manually creating an entry within the Software Catalog, the administrator needs the Managed
Delivery policy to verify that prerequisite software is installed before deploying a new application. What
should the administrator use to execute a prerequisite check?
A. Detection Rule
B. Applicability Rule
C. Basic Inventory
D. Software Filter
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ST0-135
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Network Access Control 12.1 Technical Assessment )
Questions et réponses: 220 Q&As

ST0-135 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/ST0-135.html

NO.1 A Helpdesk technician is examining the logs for a particular client when he notices something odd. A
Host Integrity event is listed for a client as failing a requirement, but that client machine is still able to
access the network even after having the check rerun several times. Why would the client's Host Integrity
status still pass?
A. The requirement logic is malfunctioning and the Helpdesk technician should notify the administrator to
contact the vendor.
B. It is likely to be a problem with the recording of the status. The log search must be rerun to update the
status.
C. The administrator has configured that requirement to allow the Host Integrity policy to pass even if it
fails.
D. The administrator has configured the OS to ignore Host Integrity even when it fails.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two databases are supported when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager is being configured?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle Database 11g
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005, SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Express, SP1
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
E. MySQL Database 5.5
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control compliance?
A. It ensures that endpoints, such as clients and servers, meet specific administrator-defined
requirements.
B. It ensures the management of a secure client endpoint through the creation and implementation of
group policies.
C. It provides services needed by a client to bring itself up to spec in order to gain access to network
resources.
D. It provides clients with the ability to configure and deliver content and product updates to other clients
in the same topological location.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
A Symantec Network Access Control administrator is trying to implement two Gateway Enforcers in
failover mode. The administrator has implemented the two Enforcers in the network as shown in the
exhibit. After starting both Gateway Enforcers, the administrator finds that both Enforcers are in active
mode. What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The failover configuration is missing.
B. The router is blocking multicast traffic.
C. The administrator failed to configure the Enforcers in Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
D. The Gateway Enforcers are configured in the same Gateway Enforcer group.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the default time interval for Host Integrity checks?
A. Continuous
B. 2 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which protocol is used to transfer packet captures from an Enforcer?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TFTP
D. SFTP
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-135   ST0-135

NO.7 How can an administrator provide computers on a quarantine VLAN with access to remediation
materials without using static routes?
A. Assign a virtual IP address to the NIC on the remediation server and add it to the quarantine VLAN.
B. Create a static route from the quarantine VLAN to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager in the
Enforcer command line interface.
C. Multi-home the remediation server and connect one NIC to a port assigned to the quarantine VLAN.
D. Put a wireless access point on the quarantine VLAN to provide wireless access to quarantined clients.
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-135   ST0-135 examen

NO.8 What will happen if a user switches to a location with a different Host Integrity policy while a Host
Integrity check is in progress?
A. The Host Integrity check will fail and the client will be denied network access.
B. The client will stop the check and the user may get a timeout if attempting to reach remediation
resources.
C. The client is permitted guest access to the quarantine network until the next scheduled Host Integrity
check.
D. The Host Integrity check always completes prior to moving between locations.
Answer: B

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NO.9 The 802.1x protocol has three major components: Supplicant, Authenticator and Authentication Server.
Which elements serve each of these components when Symantec Network Access Control is being
configured to use LAN Enforcement?
A. Supplicant: Symantec Endpoint Protection Client,
Authenticator: Symantec LAN Enforcer,
Authentication Server: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller
B. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: 802.1x Enabled Switch,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
C. Supplicant: Network Access Control Client,
Authenticator: Symantec Endpoint Protection Policy Manager,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
D. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller,
Authentication Server: Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
Answer: B

Symantec examen   ST0-135   ST0-135   ST0-135

NO.10 An organization with a Gateway Enforcer behind a VPN concentrator that is performing NAT,
determines that clients are being blocked. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The client is missing from the MAC Address Bypass list.
B. The IP address of the internal interface of the VPN connector needs to be added to the Trusted
External IP Address list.
C. The Enforcer is placed in the wrong physical location on the network.
D. Static routes need to be added to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager to pass the client traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A Host Integrity policy has a complex custom conditional check that has three IF THEN statements, two
of which have ELSE statements. How many ENDIF statements are required?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which default port must a firewall administrator open to enable communication between an Enforcer
and the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. 1433
B. 1812
C. 8443
D. 8080
Answer: B

Symantec examen   ST0-135   ST0-135

NO.13 At the Enforcer (debug)# prompt, which command enables the most detailed level of debugging?
A. level engineer
B. level verbose
C. level fine
D. level error
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which log contains IP address, connection attempt, port information, and the direction of the
connection?
A. Enforcer Client log
B. Enforcer Kernel log
C. Enforcer Traffic log
D. Enforcer Packet log
Answer: C

Symantec   certification ST0-135   ST0-135 examen

NO.15 An organization has deployed Symantec Network Access Control with LAN Enforcer. Historically, all
clients were Windows based endpoints. Now, Linux endpoints that authenticate with Microsoft Active
Directory will need to be authenticated through the LAN Enforcer. Which entry needs to be added to the
Switch Profile Action table to open the port for Linux endpoints once they have been authenticated
through Active Directory user credentials?
A. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Pass, Policy Check: Pass, Action: Open Port
B. Host Authentication: Fail, User Authentication: Fail, Policy Check: Ignore, Action: Close Port
C. Host Authentication: Unavailable, User Authentication:Pass, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Open
Port
D. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Unavailable, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Close
Port
Answer: C

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NO.16 A guest is unable to download the On-Demand client. The guest is running Windows 7 64-bit and
connecting with the Mozilla Firefox browser. The computer has 512 MB RAM and 50 MB free disk space.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The guest's system has insufficient disk space.
B. The guest's browser is unsupported.
C. The guest's operating system is unsupported.
D. The guest's system has insufficient RAM.
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-135   ST0-135 examen   ST0-135

NO.17 When a Gateway Enforcer is being deployed, which port needs to be kept open between the clients
and the Enforcer?
A. TCP 1812
B. TCP 39999
C. UDP 39999
D. UDP 1812
Answer: C

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NO.18 What are the correct connection settings for a serial connection?
A. Data Bits: 8; Parity: none; Stop Bits: 1
B. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 1
C. Data Bits: 8; Parity: even; Stop Bits: 1
D. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 2
Answer: D

Symantec   certification ST0-135   ST0-135   ST0-135

NO.19 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has created a custom requirement to remediate an operating system patch. The custom
requirement appears to be working intermittently with clients that fail the patch installation, passing the
requirement anyway. What is the likely cause of the issue?
A. The logic is missing a Fail result.
B. The logic is missing an ELSE statement.
C. The logic has an extra Pass result.
D. The logic needs an additional IF/THEN item.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator needs a custom requirement to run a script if a file does not exist. Which modification to
the logic shown in the exhibit performs this functionality?
A. Add a nested AND/OR statement to run a script after the END IF.
B. Add a nested result to run a script after the Pass.
C. Use an OR modifier to run a script after the IF.
D. Use an ELSE statement to run a script after the THEN.
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-135   ST0-135   ST0-135

NO.21 Which packets are periodically sent from an Enforcer to find other Enforcers on the network?
A. Failover
B. Discover
C. ARP
D. OSPF
Answer: A

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NO.22 What should an administrator do to obtain additional information about Host Integrity checking for a
newly implemented Host Integrity policy?
A. Create a customized computer status report on the management server.
B. Enable the reporting of additional log events on the client systems.
C. Set verbose logging on the Host Integrity policy.
D. Enable debug logging on the enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether "a product is installed" on
a client machine?
A. check the registry keys to see if the product is installed
B. check the service snap-in to see if the product is installed
C. check the policy document to see if the product is installed
D. check the IT documentation to see if the product is installed
Answer: D

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NO.24 On a LAN Enforcer, which command shows the switch action table decisions in real time?
A. show spm
B. show auth live
C. show kernel live
D. show action live
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which two are explanations of why auto-location switching may be useful for Host Integrity? (Select
two.)
A. It can define different Remediation sources, based on location.
B. It can enable different Antivirus features, based on location.
C. It can choose different Firewall rule sets, based on location.
D. It can select different Host Integrity checks, based on location
E. It can enable different LiveUpdate features, based on location.
Answer: A,D

Symantec   ST0-135   ST0-135 examen   ST0-135

NO.26 How can access be permitted to remediation services when a client fails the Host Integrity check using
a Gateway Enforcer?
A. Add the client's IP address to the Trusted External IP Address List.
B. Add the client's MAC Address to the Mac Address Bypass table.
C. Add the IP addresses of the hosts to the Trusted Internal IP Address List.
D. Add the client to the Allowed Client table on the Enforcer.
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-135   certification ST0-135

NO.27 In an Enforcer command line interface, which filter is used to capture communication traffic between an
Enforcer and a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. auth
B. client
C. query
D. spm
Answer: D

Symantec   certification ST0-135   ST0-135   ST0-135   ST0-135

NO.28 When would the Enforcer need to be reset to factory defaults?
A. to change the type of Enforcer
B. to upgrade the Enforcer
C. to purge any errors on the Enforcer
D. to purge all logs from the Enforcer
Answer: A

Symantec   certification ST0-135   ST0-135 examen   certification ST0-135   ST0-135 examen   ST0-135

NO.29 An organization's security policy requires Host Integrity checks to run only when the client is
connecting through a VPN concentrator whose internal interface is attached to a Gateway Enforcer.
Which setting should be configured to only check Host Integrity on these external clients, but not check
clients on the local network?
A. Apply the Host Integrity agent to the external computers only.
B. Add the IP addresses of the internal clients that need not be checked to the "Trusted Internal IP
Address Range".
C. Select "Only do Host-Integrity checking through the Gateway or DHCP Enforcer".
D. Block port UDP 39999 on the client firewalls of the internal clients, so that they cannot be challenged
by the Enforcer.
Answer: C

certification Symantec   ST0-135   ST0-135   certification ST0-135   certification ST0-135

NO.30 How does Symantec Network Access Control handle location switching compared to Symantec
Endpoint Protection?
A. It uses a reverse logic structure.
B. It excludes locations.
C. It uses locations instead of groups.
D. It handles locations in the same way.
Answer: D

certification Symantec   ST0-135   ST0-135

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