2013年10月31日星期四

Le plus récent matériel de formation HP HP0-M15

On doit faire un bon choix pour passer le test HP HP0-M15. C'est une bonne affaire à choisir la Q&A de Pass4Test comme le guide d'étude, parce que vous allez obtenir la Certification HP HP0-M15 en dépensant d'un petit invertissement. D'ailleur, la mise à jour gratuite pendant un an est aussi gratuite pour vous. C'est vraiment un bon choix.

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M15
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Quality Center 9.2 Software)
Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

Pass4Test est un catalyseur de votre succès de test HP HP0-M15. En visant la Certification de HP, la Q7A de Pass4Test avec beaucoup de recherches est lancée. Si vous travillez dur encore juste pour passer le test HP HP0-M15, la Q&A HP HP0-M15 est un bon choix pour vous.

C'est sûr que le Certificat HP HP0-M15 puisse améliorer le lendemain de votre carrière. Parce que si vous pouvez passer le test HP HP0-M15, c'est une meilleure preuve de vos connaissances professionnelles et de votre bonne capacité à être qualifié d'un bon boulot. Le Certificat HP HP0-M15 peut bien tester la professionnalité de IT.

Pass4Test est un seul site de provider le guide d'étude HP HP0-M15 de qualité. Peut-être que vous voyiez aussi les Q&A HP HP0-M15 dans autres sites, mais vous allez découvrir laquelle est plus complète. En fait, Pass4Test est aussi une resource de Q&A pour les autres site web.

Pass4Test a une grande équipe composée des experts d'expérience dans l'industrie IT. Leurs connaissances professionnelles et les recherches font une bonne Q&A, qui vous permet à passer le test HP HP0-M15. Dans Pass4Test, vous pouvez trouver une façon plus convenable à se former. Les resources de Pass4Test sont bien fiable. Choisissez Pass4Test, choisissez un raccourci à réussir le test HP HP0-M15.

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NO.1 What are the steps, in the correct order, to convert a requirement to a test?
A. make changes to the automatic conversion, select an automatic method
B. select convert to test, select the destination path, convert to automated test
C. select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion, select the destination subject
path
D. select the destination subject path, select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic
conversion
Answer: C

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NO.2 How is a test configured as a template test?
A. The test type chosen must be MANUAL-TEMPLATE
B. The first step in the test must be named template test
C. Right-click on the test name and choose Template Test
D. During test planning, mark the checkbox, under details, labeled template Test
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which component provides an executive-level view of the entire quality process?
A. Quality Center Foundation
B. Business Process Insight
C. Service Test Component
D. Quality Center Dashboard
Answer: D

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NO.4 What web client can be used with Quality Center 9.2?
A. Netscape
B. Safari
C. Firefox
D. Internet Explorer
Answer: D

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NO.5 When designing test steps it is important to ensure that all aspects of the application are tested. When
writing test steps, what are two things that should be done to ensure clear and accurate steps? (Select
two.)
A. specify all actual results
B. use parameters in the step names
C. specify pass and fail conditions for the step
D. use the numbering system for the step names
E. use consistent terminology throughout the test
Answer: CE

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NO.6 What database can be used with Quality Center 9.2? Select two.
A. Access
B. Sybase
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Paradox
E. Oracle
Answer: CE

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NO.7 What HP functional testing tools integrate with Quality Center? (Select two.)
A. HP OpenView
B. HP WinRunner
C. HP QuickTest Professional
D. HP LoadRunner
E. HP Change Control Management
Answer: BC

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NO.8 When a called test has parameters, when can you assign values to the parameters?
A. values are assigned from within the calling test
B. values must be assigned when the test is executed
C. values are assigned during test design or execution
D. values must be assigned when the test is called, during test design
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which term describes the main function of Quality Center?
A. test cases
B. repository
C. load test
D. defects
Answer: B

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NO.10 Where can you link tests to requirements?
A. from the Test Lab module
B. from the Requirements module
C. on the test details page (Test Plan)
D. on the attachments page (Test Plan)
Answer: B

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HP0-M15 est un test de HP Certification, donc réussir HP0-M15 est le premier pas à mettre le pied sur la Certifiction HP. Ça peut expliquer certiainement pourquoi le test HP HP0-M15 devient de plus en plus chaud, et il y a de plus en plus de gens qui veulent participer le test HP0-M15. Au contraire, il n'y a que pas beaucoup de gens qui pourrait réussir ce test. Dans ce cas, si vous vous réfléchissez étudier avec une bonne Q&A?

Le plus récent matériel de formation HP HP0-081

Le test HP HP0-081 est bien populaire dans l'Industrie IT. Donc il y a de plus en plus de gens à participer le test HP HP0-081. En fait, c'est pas facile à passer le test si on n'a pas une formation particulière. Pass4Test peut vous aider à économiser le temps et les efforts à réussir le test Certification.

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Code d'Examen: HP0-081
Nom d'Examen: HP (OpenVMS System Administration )
Questions et réponses: 146 Q&As

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NO.1 Which command correctly terminates the AUDIT_SERVER process?
A.STOP AUDIT_SERVER
B.SET AUDIT /SERVER=FINAL_ACTION=CRASH
C.SET AUDIT /SERVER=EXIT
D.SHUTDOWN AUDIT_SERVER
Correct:C

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button. Which command clears this intrusion record?
A.DELETE /INTRUDER/RECORD=XARA/0003440121:SMITH
B.DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD "XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
C.DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD /SOURCE="XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
D.SET AUDIT /DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD "XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
Correct:B

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NO.3 Assuming patch kit DEC-AXPVMS-VMS732_SYS-V0600--4.PCSI is the latest patch installed,
which statements are true? Select TWO.
A.PRODUCT ERASE * will remove all existing patches
B.PRODUCT UNDO will remove the patch if it was installed with the /SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
C.@SYS$UPDATE:VMSINSTAL REMOVE will remove the patch if it was installed with the
/SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
D.PRODUCT DELETE RECOVERY_DATA /ALL will erase any existing undo data.
E.PRODUCT REMOVE_UPDATE will remove the patch if it was installed with the
/SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
Correct:B D

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NO.4 Which statements are true regarding the default behavior of batch job log files? Select TWO.
A.created in the job owners' SYS$LOGIN directory
B.printed on queue SYS$PRINT and retained
C.printed on queue SYS$PRINT and deleted
D.given the same protection as the batch queue
E.created in the same directory as the command procedure
F.given the same protection as the batch procedure
Correct:A C

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NO.5 Based on the message format, "%facility-s-identification, text", where "s" represents the
severity; what would a severity level of "E" represent?
A.The command may have performed some, but not all, of your request.
B.The output or program result is incorrect, but the system may attempt to continue execution.
C.The output or program result is incorrect. The system cannot continue to execute the request.
D.The system has performed your request. The message provides information about the process.
Correct:B

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NO.6 To what does the term "working set" refer?
A.processes that are currently residing in the system's balance set
B.virtual pages that are mapped by a process that is in the CUR state
C.virtual pages that are currently valid in the global page table
D.virtual pages that a process can access without generating a page fault
Correct:D

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NO.7 What is the purpose of security auditing?
A.prevent hackers from penetrating the system
B.analyze system usage and project future growth trends
C.analyze and record system use to detect attempts to compromise system security
D.gather system user statistics to enable system managers to charge for resource consumption
Correct:C

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NO.8 What is the difference between a buffered I/O (BIO) and a direct I/O (DIO)?
A.The user must provide a buffer to perform a BIO, but not for a DIO.
B.BIOs are substantially faster than DIOs, but consume more memory.
C.BIO data is copied to/from a system buffer before/after performing the I/O.
D.Most I/Os to terminals are DIOs; all I/Os to disks are BIOs.
Correct:C

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NO.9 Which statements about the swapfile are true? Select TWO.
A.The swapfile will be used by the modified page writer when the pagefile is full.
B.When a process is swapped out of memory, it is written to the swapfile.
C.The swapfile must exist on the boot device, and be at least the size of WSMAX.
D.The swapfile is optional, and may be installed on a disk other than the boot device.
E.The Swapper process writes pages from the modified page list to the swapfile.
Correct:B D

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NO.10 What is the lexical function used to return accounting, status, and identification information for
a process?
A.F$USER
B.F$GETJPI
C.F$GETJOB
D.F$PROCESS
Correct:B

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NO.11 What is the command to specify that DECwindows client programs use node XARA as the
DECwindows server, running over DECnet protocol?
A.DEFINE DECW$DISPLAY XARA::
B.SET DISPLAY/CREATE/NODE=XARA
C.CREATE/DISPLAY/NODE=XARA/PROTOCOL=DECNET
D.SET DECWINDOWS/NODE=XARA/TRANSPORT=DECNET
Correct:B

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NO.12 Which command or qualifier is used to display each line of a command procedure while it is
executing?
A.SET NOON
B.SET VERIFY
C.@procedure/VERIFY
D.@procedure/OUTPUT=file
Correct:B

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NO.13 VMScluster interconnects serve which purposes? Select TWO.
A.host systems accessing all physical devices and mailboxes
B.host systems accessing storage devices through the MSCP server
C.communication to the master node maintaining the Dedicated CPU Lock Manager
D.direct access to the master node's memory for the shared lock database
E.host systems in the cluster communicating with each other
Correct:B E

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NO.14 Which command deletes a logical name TROLL from the GROUP logical name table?
A.DELETE/LOGICAL TROLL
B.DEASSIGN/GROUP TROLL
C.DELETE/TABLE=GROUP TROLL
D.DEASSIGN/TABLE=GROUP TROLL
Correct:B

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NO.15 Which installation option performs a new installation on a disk?
A.CURRENT
B.OVERWRITE
C.INITIALIZE
D.PRESERVE
Correct:C

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NO.16 Which command displays the LURT (License Unit Requirement Table) entry for an OpenVMS
node? There is more than one correct answer. Select ONE.
A.SHOW LICENSE /LURT
B.LICENSE LIST /TABLE
C.SHOW LICENSE /CHARGE_TABLE
D.LICENSE LIST /MINIMUM_UNITS
E.SHOW CPU /UNIT_REQUIREMENT
F.SHOW LICENSE /UNIT_REQUIREMENT
Correct:A B C D E F

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NO.17 After execution of the command: $ DEFINE/JOB LOGNAME SYS$LOGIN:MYFILE.DAT What
happens to the logical name LOGNAME?
A.It is visible to all processes in the same UIC group.
B.It is deassigned automatically on the next image exit.
C.It is placed into the process logical name table.
D.It is visible to all processes in this process tree.
Correct:D

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NO.18 To review all the audit events for a specific user, which command is used?
A.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SINCE=TODAY/USER=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
B.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/ACCOUNT=PAYROLL SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
C.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SELECT=PROCESS=NAME=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
D.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SELECT=USERNAME=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
Correct:D

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NO.19 By default, which file stores the system audit records?
A.SYS$MANAGER:OPERATOR.LOG
B.SYS$MANAGER:AUDIT_SERVER.AUDIT$JOURNAL
C.SYS$MANAGER:ACCOUNTNG.DAT
D.SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
Correct:D

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NO.20 What are benefits of VMS clustering? Select THREE.
A.non-stop processing
B.massively parallel computing
C.single security domain
D.transparent access to storage between HP-UX, OpenVMS, and Linux systems
E.shared storage across multiple systems
F.cross-node automatic process failover
G.high availability
Correct:C E G

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Pass4Test vous permet à réussir le test Certification sans beaucoup d'argents et de temps dépensés. La Q&A HP HP0-081 est recherchée par Pass4Test selon les résumés de test réel auparavant, laquelle est bien liée avec le test réel.

L'avènement de la certification HP pratique d'examen HP0-G11 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: HP0-G11
Nom d'Examen: HP (CCI Fundamentals for Solution Architects)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 HP SIM displays a system type of UnmanageD. What are the possible causes? (Select two.)
A. The HP SIM Client is not installeD.
B. The system may not be responding to ping requests.
C. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block port 1433.
D. Community strings settings on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
E. WBEM (WMI) userID/passwords on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
aged system.
Answer: DE

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NO.2 HP SIM displays a system type of Unknown. What are possible causes? (Select two.)
A. The wrong version of HP SIM Client is installeD.
B. The system may not be responding to ping requests.
C. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block ports 80 and 8080.
D. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block ports 161 and 162.
E. WBEM (WMI) userID/passwords on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
Answer: DE

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NO.3 Which version of RGS may CCI users deploy?
A. RHEL 4.0
B. PC Edition
C. Enterprise Edition
D. Windows Vista Edition
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which additional members are recommended to be added to the HP SAM Administrator access list?
(Select two.)
A. security group
B. service account
C. individual name(s)
D. domain administrator
E. local SAM server administrator
Answer: AC

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NO.5 CCI redefines the traditional networked desktop PC into three tiers. What are those three tiers?
A. network, storage and security
B. access, compute and resource
C. user, administrative and network
D. monitor, motherboard and keyboard
Answer: B

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NO.6 The CCI end users experience can be negatively impacted by network latency. At which point does
latency become typically unacceptable?
A. 1 to 100 ms
B. 100 to 200 ms
C. 200 to 250 ms
D. above 250 ms
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer has just installed and configured a complete HP CCI environment using HP SAM. When
the client attempts to connect to a known available resource from the SAM client on his local PC, he
receives a message that no resources are availablE. Upon further investigation, the SAM administrator
notices all resources in a given role go offline when users attempt to connect to that rolE.
What should the administrator do?
A. Verify that the SAM Web server is configured using failover.
B. Verify that there is a firewall exception for the SAM Registration ServicE.
C. Verify that there is a port exception for the client service port on the local PC.
D. Verify that the Remote Desktop Protocol is enabled on the blade and the user is granted access.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which ports carry SNMP traffic in a standard environment or configuration? (Select two.)
A. 21
B. 22
C. 161
D. 162
E. 1433
Answer: CD

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NO.9 Which command registers new MIBs in HP SIM?
A. mxmib -a
B. mxmib -1
C. mcompile -a
D. mcompile -1
Answer: A

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NO.10 During installation of the HP SAM Web server, which account type does HP recommend to use as the
owner of the HP SAM Web site?
A. user account
B. service account
C. local administrator account
D. domain guest account
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two HP PC Blade Switch features are used to provide redundant network connectivity? (Select
two.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol
B. Link Aggregation Protocol
C. Hot Standby Router Protocol
D. Split Multi-Link Trunk Protocol
E. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
Answer: AB

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NO.12 When comparing a traditional PC environment to a "dynamic" implementation of HP's CCI solution in
which the end users are using thin clients as access devices, how is CCI different?
A. A blade PC can do a better job of rendering full-screen, full-motion video files than a desktop PC.
B. Routers on a public network are bi-directional, enabling the CCI solution to take advantage of
retroactive time stamping of all data transmissions.
C. Even if the access device is stolen or destroyed, an end user can quickly log back on from any
networked location and access his applications and data files.
D. Data files are stored on the access device in a dynamic implementation of CCI. However, they are
erased when the thin client is power cycled or rebooted, so the data is safE.
Answer: C

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NO.13 How does CCI enable Business Continuity for end users? (Select two.)
A. Blade PCs consume only about 25-40 watts per blade; this power savings is a benefit to data center
managers responsible for the budget.
B. CCI enables image replacement and rebalancing, so all blade PC users will have the same network
performance no matter where they login from.
C. CCI makes full use of the Active Directory schema; therefore, users are always guaranteed to be
directed to the same blade PC regardless of what location they login from.
D. CCI uses Microsofts free Remote Desktop Connection (RDC) software, so end users can install it on
their personal computer to access their blade PC.
E. CCI blade PCs are distributed, so if power is lost to one enclosure, rack or data center, users can
quickly be reallocated to blade PCs in another enclosure, rack, or data center.
Answer: DE

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NO.14 How do you configure the HP PC Blade Enclosure IA and HP PC Blade Switch to send alerts to the
HP System Insight Manager Console (HP SIM)? (Select two.)
A. configure HP System Insight Manager WBEM settings to include the IP addresses of the Integrated
Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch
B. configure Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch to use an IP address in the same subnet
as the HP System Insight Manager Server
C. configure HP System Insight Manager System Automatic Discovery Ping range to include the IP
ranges of the Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch
D. configure Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch SNMP community string and destination
IP address to match the HP System Insight Manager Server
Answer: CD

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NO.15 HP Sygate Security Agent is installed and enabled on the access devicE. Which application and port
exception is required to enable the HP SAM Web client to communicate to available resources?
A. MstsC. exe:3389
B. IExplorE. exe:3389
C. DaesvC. exe:47777
D. HPrdcw32.exe:3389
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which directory service is fully supported in CCI?
A. Novell eDirectory
B. Microsoft Active Directory (AD)
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. HP OpenView Directory Service
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which command compiles a MIB for HP SIM?
A. compile
B. mcompile
C. mxmib -c
D. mcompile
Answer: D

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NO.18 By design, which benefit does the CCI solution provide over a traditional PC?
A. improved resource security
B. improved off-line experience
C. increased total cost of ownership
D. improved video streaming performance
Answer: A

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NO.19 CCI users are unable to save their documents to a NAS. After checking the Active Directory setup, you
verify that all users have been placed in the proper OU, named CCIUsers, and the associated group
policy is properly redirecting the users' folders.
However, when any attempt is made to save a document, an Access Denied error is receiveD. Checking
the folder that the file should be saved to, you notice one of the NTFS permissions is incorrect, thereby
preventing the document from being saveD.
Which of the following permissions would allow CCI users to save their documents?
A. DesktopUsers: Allow List Folder Contents; This folder
B. SYSTEM: Allow Full Control; This folder, subfolders and files
C. Administrators: Allow Full Control; This folder, subfolders and files
D. CCIUsers: Allow Read & Execute; This folder, subfolders and files
Answer: B

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NO.20 In the CCI solution, what types of data travels between the client access device and the blade PC?
(Select two.)
A. encrypted keyboard and mouse input
B. hardware-encrypted streaming media
C. compressed screen images and audio
D. raw screen images and bi-directional audio
E. application streaming with interactive content
Answer: AC

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Code d'Examen: HP0-207
Nom d'Examen: HP (Procurve Adaptive EDGE Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 You are installing a ProCurve switch at a customer site and must enable remote management
for network administrators. Which configuration parameter is necessary to ensure that
administrators can manage the switch even if they are on different IP networks?
A.default VLAN
B.default gateway
C.default password
D.default management profile
Correct:B

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NO.2 You are assigned to configure ProCurve switches at a customer site for in-band management.
Which are in-band management methods? Select TWO.
A.Telnet
B.SNMP
C.XMODEM
D.serial console
E.menu interface
Correct:A B

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NO.3 While using the CLI to configure a ProCurve switch, you must move from the global
configuration level to the port context configuration level for port a1. Which command do you use?
A.port a1
B.ethernet a1
C.interface a1
D.configure a1
Correct:C

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NO.4 You must remotely manage a customer's switch using Telnet. Which configuration/monitoring
interfaces are available? Select TWO.
A.web interface
B.menu interface
C.ProCurve Manager
D.boot monitor interface
E.command line interface
Correct:B E

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NO.5 You are about to update the software on a ProCurve switch. Which command do you use to view
a list of all software versions stored on the switch?
A.show run
B.show flash
C.show startup
D.show version
Correct:B

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NO.6 A customer is planning a Power over Ethernet deployment for a large call center that will use
VoIP telephones. While planning the wiring closets for the deployment, the customer suggests
using the uplink ports of a ProCurve Switch 2650-PWR to provide power to a ProCurve Switch
2600-8-PWR. Which statement describes a correct response to this suggestion?
A.It is only possible if the second switch is a ProCurve Switch 2626-PWR.
B.It is not possible because the 2600-8-PWR cannot act as a Powered Device.
C.It is only possible if the customer adds a ProCurve 600 EPS/RPS to the first switch.
D.It is not recommended because the second switch will not have adequate power redundancy.
Correct:B

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NO.7 How do ProCurve switches, configured with link aggregation (also known as port trunking),
handle broadcast traffic?
A.Broadcast traffic is flooded through all of the ports in the trunk.
B.The switch sends a query and receives permission from potential receivers before flooding.
C.Broadcast traffic is handled in exactly the same way it would be without port trunking configured.
D.Broadcast traffic is flooded through non-trunked ports, but forwarded only through one of the ports in
the trunk.
Correct:D

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NO.8 You are implementing a fully connected HP Switch Mesh at a customer site. Which statement
describes a valid design guideline for HP Switch Meshing?
A.A switch may be connected to no more than four mesh domains.
B.Up to five Switch 5400zl Series switches can be included in a full mesh.
C.All links in a full mesh must operate at the same speed and use the same media type.
D.When a switch is configured for HP Switch Meshing protocol, all of the ports on that switch must
participate in the mesh.
Correct:B

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NO.9 You have been asked to configure IGMP on a ProCurve Switch 6200yl at a customer site. What
are the steps for enabling IGMP on the switch?
A.Enter the manager level, then issue the ip igmp command.
B.Enter the global configuration context, then issue the ip igmp command.
C.Enter the VLAN context for each VLAN that will support IGMP, then issue the ip igmp command.
D.Enter the interface configuration context for each port configured with a VLAN, then issue the ip igmp
command.
Correct:C

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NO.10 What are the primary solution categories of the Adaptive EDGE Architecture? Select THREE.
A.mobility
B.security
C.reliability
D.availability
E.upgradeability
F.convergence
G.cost-effectiveness
Correct:A B F

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NO.11 You are configuring a ProCurve Layer 2 switch to obtain time information from an SNTP server
located on a different IP network than the switch. Which configuration steps are necessary on the
switch to enable this functionality?
A.The switch cannot be configured to obtain time information from a server on a different IP network.
B.Define a default gateway for the switch, enable SNTP, use the sntp server command to enter the IP
address of the server.
C.Assign a port on the switch to a VLAN that includes the SNTP server, enable SNTP, configure the
switch for SNTP unicast mode.
D.Configure an IP address on the same IP network as the SNTP server, enable TimeP, configure the
switch for SNTP broadcast mode.
Correct:B

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NO.12 How is traffic prioritization accomplished with IEEE 802.1p?
A.802.1Q-compliant devices enforce priorities based on VLAN ID.
B.802.1Q-compliant devices set one of 8 values in a 3-bit field in the VLAN tag.
C.802.1Q-compliant devices set one of 64 values in a 6-bit field in the IP datagram header.
D.802.1Q-compliant devices dedicate a portion of available bandwidth to each prioritized conversation.
Correct:B

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NO.13 While examining the spanning tree configuration on a ProCurve switch, you notice that one of
the ports is in the Blocking state. Which statement describes how this port will function in this
state?
A.The port is completely blocked for all purposes.
B.The switch will not forward user traffic through that port, but will forward telnet traffic.
C.The switch will not forward user traffic through that port, but will forward BPDUs through that port.
D.The switch forwards user traffic through that port, but does not receive user traffic through that port.
Correct:C

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NO.14 On switches that support the Switch Setup screen interface, which parameters can be
configured on the Switch Setup screen? Select TWO.
A.STP bridge priority
B.IP address of the TACACS+ server
C.system name and contact information
D.IP address and subnet mask for each VLAN
E.IP address and subnet mask for the default VLAN
Correct:C E

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NO.15 You configured Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol on four ProCurve Switch 5348xl switches at a
customer site. During the configuration, you forgot to configure the switches so that
switch-to-switch links are not defined as edge ports. Which statement describes the consequence
of your oversight?
A.The switches in the spanning tree will elect multiple Root bridges.
B.The switches will reject the spanning tree configuration and block all ports until the configuration is
corrected.
C.The switches will be unable to elect a Root bridge and will not be able to forward traffic until the
configuration is corrected.
D.The switches will require more time to elect the Root bridge and resolve the topology, but the spanning
tree will otherwise function normally.
Correct:D

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NO.16 While using the CLI to configure a ProCurve switch, you must change context from the manager
level to the global configuration level. Which command do you use?
A.exit
B.write
C.global
D.enable
E.configure
Correct:E

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NO.17 What are the key principles of the Adaptive EDGE architecture? Select TWO.
A.Control to the Edge
B.Control to the Desktop
C.Command from the Center
D.Management from Anywhere
E.Security throughout the Network
Correct:A C

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NO.18 You are about to configure HP Switch Meshing on four ProCurve switches at a customer site.
All of the ports that will be included in the mesh are configured for membership in customer
VLANs. How will the mesh configuration affect the VLAN configuration?
A.The mesh ports will automatically become a tagged member of all configured VLANs.
B.The mesh ports will not be a member of any VLANs until you manually configure its VLAN assignments.
C.The mesh ports will not be 802.1Q-compliant and will only be able to retain membership in a single
untagged VLAN.
D.The mesh ports will automatically become a member of the default VLAN and must be configured for
other VLAN membership.
Correct:A

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NO.19 At a customer site, you have configured four ProCurve switches for HP Switch Meshing and
Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol. How will the mesh appear to non-mesh switches in the same
spanning tree domain?
A.as a single device
B.as a set of devices without redundant links
C.as devices that cannot participate in the spanning tree
D.as a set of devices with spanning tree enabled to block redundant links
Correct:A

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NO.20 You must update the software on a customer's ProCurve Switch 5412zl. Which statement
correctly describes the process for this operation? Select TWO.
A.Use TFTP for direct serial transfer of the software.
B.Use FTP for in-band transfer of the software through an IP network.
C.Use TFTP for in-band transfer of the software through an IP network.
D.Transfer the software from your workstation using a direct serial transfer.
E.Instruct the switch to search for any available TFTP server without knowing its IP address.
Correct:C D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-918
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Storage Data Protector 6.0 Fundamentals for Windows)
Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Data Protector process controls an active backup session?
A.the DA (disk agent) on the Cell Client
B.the MA (media agent) on the Cell Client
C.the CRS (cell request server) on the Cell Manager
D.the BSM (backup session manager) on the Cell Manager
Correct:D

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NO.2 Between which instances is data moved during a disk staging object copy process?
A.Media Agent and Disk Agent
B.Media Agent and Media Agent
C.Backup Session Manager and Disk Agent
D.Backup Session Manager and Media Agent
Correct:B

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NO.3 What is the maximum recommended size of a file depot for Windows?
A.50GB
B.100GB
C.200GB
D.600GB
Correct:A

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NO.4 Which interconnect technology is supported for shared tape device resources in a cluster
where the Cell Manager is installed in the cluster?
A.SCSI
B.Ethernet
C.Fibre Channel
D.SATA and SCSI
Correct:C

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NO.5 How can you prevent multiple hosts from simultaneously attempting to utilize a device in one
Data Protector cell?
A.logical lock
B.device lock
C.lock names
D.physical lock
Correct:C

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NO.6 You are not able to configure a changer device on a remote media agent with the Data Protector
SSE (Single Server Edition). What can you do to resolve this problem?
A.Configure host access to the LUN.
B.Install the required device driver for the library.
C.Disable the RSM service on the agent system.
D.Upgrade Data Protector to support remote devices.
Correct:D

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NO.7 Which media agent program can be used for interactively sending SCSI commands to a tape
library?
A.lma
B.bma
C.uma
D.cma
E.mma
Correct:C

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NO.8 How can you collect debug files from distributed Data Protector clients in the environment?
A.Use the omnidlc command.
B.Use the devbra collector.
C.Use the omnitrig process.
D.Use the Web Reporting GUI.
Correct:A

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NO.9 Which command checks the Data Protector services, the media management database
consistency, and that there is at least one backup of the Data Protector database?
A.omnicheck
B.omnihealth
C.omnidbcheck
D.omnihealthcheck
Correct:D

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NO.10 What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify file system objects in the
database? (Select three.)
A.device
B.filenames
C.hostname
D.mountpoint
E.description
F.rawdisk sections
Correct:C D E

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NO.11 The Data Protector Backup Session Manager (BSM) runs on which system or systems in the
cell?
A.client only
B.cell manager only
C.client and cell manager
D.dedicated installation server
Correct:B

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NO.12 What is a media pool?
A.a collection of media of the same age
B.a logical collection of media that belong together
C.a concept that enables faster backup and restore
D.a physical collection of media that is used by the same device
Correct:B

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NO.13 By default, which file is the Data Protector Database recovery file?
A.obdb.dat
B.obrindex.dat
C.obdatafiles.dat
D.obdbrecovery.dat
Correct:B

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NO.14 A tape library with two drives is connected to two hosts (host A and host B) using SCSI. Each
host is accessing one drive through a dedicated SCSI connection. Host B also has access to the
robotics interface. Which statement is true in this configuration?
A.This configuration is not possible in a SCSI environment because all hosts need physical access to the
robotics controller.
B.Host A will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations for the local
drive.
C.Host B will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations.
D.Both hosts A and B will require a "direct library" configuration to allow shared network control of the
robotics.
Correct:C

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NO.15 How can you configure a mixed media library with Data Protector?
A.Set up a MultiPath device.
B.Set up one library definition per media type.
C.Set the media type manually on the library slots.
D.DP automatically configures the different media slots.
Correct:B

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NO.16 Which hardware is automatically reconfigured by ASR (Automated System Recovery) if that
hardware is replaced with a different type or size as part of the disaster recovery process?
A.Hard drive
B.Video card
C.Network card
D.Host bus adapter
Correct:A

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NO.17 What must first be done on a Windows NT cell manager before upgrading Data Protector to
version 5.5?
A.Ensure that a Windows installation server is installed.
B.Ensure the current Data Protector version is at the highest patch level.
C.Install the latest Windows NT service pack.
D.Upgrade Windows NT to a higher Windows version.
Correct:D

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NO.18 What communication technique is used for disk agent to media agent data transfer if the agents
do NOT reside on the same host?
A.RMI over LAN
B.remote agents
C.stream sockets
D.pipe mechanisms
Correct:C

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NO.19 What are the benefits of enhanced incremental over conventional incremental backups?
(Select two.)
A.higher backup throughput
B.detects renamed and removed files
C.backup detects files with attribute changes
D.backups are more secure due to better encryption
E.files with longer names are detected and backed up
Correct:B C

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NO.20 Which Data Protector feature simplifies shared access of several hosts to a physical device?
A.redundant paths
B.multipath devices
C.device locking mechanism
D.multiple device connections
Correct:B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y20
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Adaptive EDGE Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 After connecting five ProCurve Switch 5300xl switches, you find that Spanning Tree Protocol is
enabled by default and that some switch ports are in the Blocking state. Which statement best describes
the default Spanning Tree operation of ProCurve 5300xl switches? (Select two.)
A. All the switches use the standard version of Spanning Tree Protocol.
B. All ports are set to Fast Uplink mode, and because of the enhanced mode, their port status is shown as
"Blocking."
C. All the switches use Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol.
D. All the switches use Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
E. If any of the five switches' firmware supports Multiple Spanning Tree, all other switches automatically
switch to the Multiple Spanning Tree mode.
F. The switches will interoperate with neighboring switches that use Spanning Tree Protocol or Rapid
Spanning Tree Protocol.
Answer: CF

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NO.2 When an IT manager of ProCurve University is configuring a ProCurve switch using the CLI, what is
indicated by the command prompt Switch_1A#?
A. The switch is located on floor 1, building A.
B. Host name for the switch has not been defined.
C. Current context is the global configuration level.
D. Current context is the manager level.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are the primary solution categories of the Adaptive EDGE Architecture? (Select three.)
A. security
B. availability
C. convergence
D. reliability
E. upgradeability
F. mobility
G. cost-effectiveness
Answer: ACF

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NO.4 All of the ports that will be included in a newly developed mesh of four ProCurve 3500yl Series
switches are configured for membership in customer VLANs. How will the mesh configuration affect the
VLAN configuration?
A. The mesh ports will only be able to retain membership in a single untagged VLAN.
B. The mesh ports will automatically become a tagged member of all configured VLANs.
C. The mesh ports will automatically become a member of the default VLAN and must be configured for
other VLAN membership.
D. The mesh ports will not be a member of any VLANs until the VLAN assignments are manually
configured.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement is true about mesh switches configured with Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol
connected to non-meshed switches in the same spanning tree domain?
A. The mesh switches appear as a set of multiple blade switch units to the non-mesh switches.
B. The mesh switches cannot join a non-mesh topology even if all switches support Spanning Tree
Protocol.
C. A mesh topology appears as a normal cascaded topology with ports blocked by the Spanning Tree
Protocol services.
D. The mesh switches appear as a single logical switch to non-meshed switches.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which issues found in legacy core-oriented networking solutions can be resolved by migrating to
ProCurve Adaptive EDGE Architecture? (Select two.)
A. Legacy core switches lack the capacity for implementing Layer 2 and Layer 3 redundancy
technologies.
B. Traffic forwarding must pass through core switch before routing, security, and prioritization tasks can be
performed.
C. Emerging protocols and standards such as IPv6 cannot be supported by legacy core switches.
D. As each switch is added at the edge, it increases the decision making load in the core and constrains
scalability.
E. Routers in core-oriented networks must perform more complicated packet manipulation than routers in
edge-oriented networks.
Answer: BD

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NO.7 The IT manager of a large call center has configured four ProCurve Switch 5412zl's for HP Switch
Meshing. How does a switch that is part of the mesh handle broadcast and multicast traffic that originates
from a port outside the mesh?
A. It will replace broadcast and multicast addresses with the unicast MAC addresses of its neighbors in
the mesh.
B. It will forward both broadcast and multicast traffic over ports that form the loop-free topology
established by the meshing protocol.
C. It will flood broadcast and multicast traffic through meshed and non-meshed ports.
D. It will send a query to its directly connected neighbors to find out whether any of the neighbors'
connected hosts can respond to broadcasts and multicasts.
Answer: B

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NO.8 While presenting an overview of ProCurve Manager at a customer site, you differentiate between the
features of ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) and ProCurve Manager. Which features are only included in
PCM+? (Select two.)
A. VLAN management
B. alerts
C. automatic discovery
D. scheduled software updates
E. network topology mapping
Answer: AD

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NO.9 You must test and qualify new ProCurve switch software in a production network limited to a single
switch. Which two tasks combined enable you to test and qualify the new software without losing the
existing qualified production software? (Select two.)
A. Boot the switch to the secondary flash.
B. Upload the new software to a VLAN flash.
C. Boot the switch to the new software.
D. Dump the qualified software to a file and upload the new software.
E. Reset the VLAN to boot to the new software in the VLAN flash.
F. Upload the new software to secondary flash.
Answer: AF

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NO.10 When designing a wireless network, it is very important to consider the frequency range in which the
network operates and the maximum throughput of the network to ensure that it can meet the customer's
needs. Which wireless LAN standards specify frequency and maximum throughput of wireless networks?
(Select three.)
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11d
D. 802.11e
E. 802.11f
F. 802.11g
G. 802.11i
Answer: ABF

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NO.11 A customer inquires about configuring the IP address on a new ProCurve 3500yl switch. What can you
do to configure this information on the switch? (Select two.)
A. Connect to the switch using the Telnet interface, enter the global configuration level, and assign a
box-wide IP address.
B. Leave the switch at its factory default settings and allow it to acquire an IP address, mask, and default
gateway from a DHCP server.
C. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, and
assign a box-wide IP address and mask.
D. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, enable
DHCP, and assign an address scope.
E. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, and assign
an IP address and mask within the context of the VLAN used for management access .
Answer: BE

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NO.12 In a Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol network using six ProCurve Switch 3500yl switches, you notice
that multiple switches have declared themselves Root in one of the Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol
instances. How can you correct this problem?
A. Modify the port priorities on all switch-to-switch links so that one switch has the highest priority value.
B. Set the Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol parameters to use the switch with the highest hardware MAC
address as the Root switch.
C. Trace VLAN routing topology and modify the VLAN assignments on the switches so that they match.
D. Change the bridge discovery priorities on the switches to distinct values.
E. Check and modify the switches so that they have the same configuration name and revision number.
Answer: E

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NO.13 A customer that is installing several ProCurve 3500yl switches asks about the Link Layer Discovery
Protocol (LLDP) support capabilities on these switches. Which statement is true about LLDP operation?
A. It is globally disabled by default to avoid any performance impact.
B. LLDP is a reciprocal protocol that provides acknowledgement for each packet transmitted.
C. The ports placed in Blocked state by Spanning Tree Protocol prevent LLDP messages from being
transmitted.
D. The LLDP neighbors table contains the system name and MAC address of neighbors.
Answer: D

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NO.14 The IT manager of a medium-sized retail store is configuring a wireless network. As a first step in
securing the wireless network, the manager decides to enable the Closed system parameter on each of
the ProCurve Access Point 530 devices. What is the main difference between Open and Closed wireless
networks?
A. In an Open system, the SSID is advertised to clients; in a Closed system the SSID it is not advertised.
B. A Closed system requires the client's wireless MAC address be configured on the access point; an
Open system does not require MAC authentication.
C. A Closed system requires the client to have a pre-shared key; an Open system does not require a
pre-shared key.
D. An Open system requires the use of 802.1X and RADIUS authentication; a Closed system does not
require the use of 802.1X and RADIUS authentication.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which command must be entered at the CLI of a ProCurve switch to ensure recent configuration
changes will not be lost when the switch is restarted?
A. write memory
B. save config
C. save flash -overwrite
D. commit change
E. write flash -overwrite
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which configuration steps are required to enable a ProCurve Layer 2 switch to synchronize its clock
with a SNTP server located on a different IP subnet? (Select three.)
A. Enable SNTP.
B. Enable TimeP.
C. Define a default IP gateway.
D. Configure for SNTP broadcast mode.
E. Enter the IP address of the SNTP server.
Answer: ACE

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NO.17 What information, normally associated with the wireless network name, is required by the wireless
clients in order to establish connections to the access point?
A. pre-shared key
B. Independent Basic Service Set
C. Service Set Identifier
D. shared secret
Answer: C

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NO.18 An IT administrator enters the show flash command on a ProCurve switch. What will this command
display?
A. the configurations on the switch
B. the current version of software running
C. the configuration available in memory
D. a list of all software versions stored on the switch
Answer: D

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NO.19 An existing 1000Base-T link between two ProCurve 5406zl switches at a small university is configured
as a member of the faculty VLAN. After the IT manager configured a four-port trunk between the switches,
members of the college's faculty reported that they can no longer access servers that were available
before the trunk was installed. Which statement describes a likely solution for this problem?
A. A new link must be configured for the VLAN because the maximum number of VLANs that the port
trunk can support has been exceeded.
B. The port trunk must be configured for tagged membership in the faculty VLAN because port trunks do
not support untagged VLANs.
C. The switch-to-switch link must be added to the port trunk because the switches cannot simultaneously
support port trunks and single-port links between switches.
D. The port trunk must be configured for membership in the faculty VLAN because the trunk ports are
automatically assigned to the default VLAN as untagged members.
Answer: D

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NO.20 When considering the following options to manage a new installation of ProCurve network devices,
which options will support ProCurve Manager as a central management platform? (Select two.)
A. IBM p-series Server running IBM AIX 5L
B. HP Integrity Server running HP-UX 11i v3
C. HP Business Desktop running Microsoft Windows XP Professional
D. HP ProLiant server running SuSE Linux Enterprise Server
E. HP ProLiant server running Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition
Answer: CE

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NO.21 A ProCurve University IT manager is on-site with a task to configure six new ProCurve switches for
in-band management access. Which connectivity method will facilitate this? (Select two.)
A. Telnet
B. SNMP
C. menu interface
D. serial console
E. XMODEM
Answer: AB

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NO.22 Which ProCurve CLI command enables you to move from the Manager level to the Global
Configuration level?
A. global-su
B. su-enable
C. globalcfg
D. sw-disable
E. configure
Answer: E

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NO.23 What is the maximum number of port trunk groups a customer can define on a ProCurve Switch
5412zl being used to aggregate traffic at the distribution level?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 24
D. 36
Answer: D

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NO.24 What is the free trial period for ProCurve Manager Plus?
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 2 months
D. 6 months
Answer: B

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NO.25 In a ProCurve Switch 5300xl, you change the following using the CLI:
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# configure
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# password manager
New password for Manager: *********
Please retype new password for Manager: ********
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# password operator
New password for Operator: *********
Please retype new password for Operator: *********
The new password for Manager is HPinvent# and the new password for Operator is hpINVENT!
Which login name and password are needed for the web interface if the administrator requires read/write
access? (Select two.)
A. Manager
B. hpINVENT!
C. HPinvent#
D. Operator
Answer: AC

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NO.26 Which ProCurve Manager wizard simplifies the task of changing the SNTP server IP address
parameter on 50 ProCurve 5406zl switches?
A. Time-Sync Wizard
B. CLI Wizard
C. IP Address Wizard
D. Configuration Wizard
E. Switch Update Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.27 A ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) server located at an insurance company has been reported as not
discovering any manageable devices except those on the subnet where the PCM+ Management Server
resides. Which statement is true about this behavior?
A. This behavior is normal because PCM+ discovery messages do not cross router interfaces.
B. This behavior is normal because PCM+ discovery uses Link Layer Discovery Protocol, which only
survives one switch-to-switch hop.
C. This behavior indicates that PCM+ has been configured with an incorrect default gateway.
D. This behavior is normal because by default, automatic discovery only occurs on the subnet that the
PCM+ management server belongs to.
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which configuration and monitoring interfaces are available when you access a ProCurve switch
through Telnet? (Select two.)
A. menu interface
B. web interface
C. command line interface
D. boot monitor interface
E. ProCurve Manager interface
Answer: AC

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NO.29 You are configuring spanning tree on ProCurve switches at a customer site. Why would you configure
a particular switch to have a higher bridge priority? (Select two.)
A. to force all of the switch's ports to be blocked
B. to make it less likely that the switch's ports will be blocked
C. to cause the switch to remove BPDUs from the network
D. to make it more likely that the switch will become the root
E. to increase the path cost of all switch links
Answer: BD

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NO.30 What is the effect when switch ports are placed in Blocking state by Spanning Tree Protocol?
A. The switch will not forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will forward any secured
Telnet traffic.
B. The switch will only forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will not receive any
network user traffic through those ports.
C. The switch will not forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will forward traffic related
to Link Aggregation Control Protocol and Bridge Protocol Data Units.
D. The ports are completely blocked and marked Not Used (zero transmission).
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J23
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing MSA Storage Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

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NO.1 Which data backup features are introduced as part of a SAN? (Select three.)
A.reduction of congestion
B.elimination of single point of failure
C.elimination of database downtime for backup
D.efficient utilization of storage resources
E.reduction of power outage risk in the storage network
F.improvements of backup window
ANSWER: BCE

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NO.2 How many ports are available on an HP StorageWorks 4/32 SAN switch base system?
A.12
B.16
C.20
D.28
ANSWER: B

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NO.3 Your customer wants to share data among many servers in their LAN.
Which storage solution is most suitable for this customer?
A.Network Attached Storage
B.Internet SCSI
C.Storage Area Network
D.Fibre Channel over IP
ANSWER: A

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NO.4 What are benefits of storage consolidation to a customer? (Select two.)
A.regular, mandatory maintenance hours
B.more efficient storage growth
C.higher availability through decentralized storage pools
D.better disk capacity utilization than DAS
E.eliminates the need for a backup
ANSWER: CE

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NO.5 Which action is performed by MultiPath I/O if the Device Specific Module (DSM) returns
an inactive path to the system?
A.The automatic load balancing policy is disabled.
B.Load balancing policy is reduced by this path.
C.A path failover is initiated.
D.The inactive path is verified again.
ty
ANSWER: C

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NO.6 Which component enables access to block storage on a Fibre Channel SAN across an
Ethernet network?
A.Fibre Channel Switch
B.Ethernet Switch
C.iSCSI to Fibre Channel bridge
D.FC-IP gateway connector
ANSWER: C

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NO.7 Which physical or logical storage components can be managed using the HP StorageWorks MSA2000
Family Storage Management Utility? (Select three.)
A.virtual disks
B.disk groups
C.replication groups
D.pre-fetch cache
E.master volumes
F.drive modules
ANSWER: AEF

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NO.8 What is a Recovery Time Objective?
A.maximum duration of data restore per system
B.maximum acceptable time interval for business data unavailability
C.maximum time frame for restoring data of all systems
D.maximum time frame for data loss in case of failure
ANSWER: B

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NO.9 Where is the MSA Storage Management Utility web server located?
A.on each of MSA controller modules
B.on the master MSA controller module
C.on the SAN management server
D.on any server connected to the SAN
ANSWER: A

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NO.10 How does the Storage Management Utility distinguish users while they are connected to an MSA2000
Family Modular Smart Array controller?
A.by name of the connected user
B.by IP address of the connected client
C.by WWN of the management host
D.by certificate issued by the Storage Management Utility
ANSWER: B

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NO.11 What is the Recovery Point Objective?
A.the amount of data that must be recovered
B.the amount of time the restoration takes for all data
C.the amount of data you can afford to lose
D.the amount of time you can afford to be without the data
ANSWER: C

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NO.12 What are key features of the MSA2012i? (Select three.)
A.support for up to 64 hosts
B.controller-based replication capability
C.support for up to 16 servers
D.snapshot and clone capability
E.automated active/passive failover
F.hardware active/active failover
ANSWER: CDF

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
Which function does a Network Storage Router (NSR) provide?
A.backup accelerator for 2Gb SANs
B.two-stage backup capabilities for SAN environments
C.Fibre Channel-to-SCSI bridge
D.data encryption to the tape device
ANSWER: C

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NO.14 You are specifying a storage solution for your customer, but the customer has limited skills to configure
the solution. The MSA2012fc has a new feature called Automatic Virtual Disk Creation which will help the
customer configure the array.
What must you ensure when specifying the solution?
A.Only one type of disk (SAS or SATA) is specified.
B.Only SAS drives are specified.
C.The solution is a dual controller solution.
D.A minimum of two disk enclosures is connected.
ANSWER: A

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NO.15 Which technologies are used to transmit data over IP networks? (Select two.)
A.FC-over-ATM
B.iSCSI
C.FC-IP
D.ESCON
E.FICON
ANSWER: AE

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NO.16 What are high availability features of a SAN? (Select two.)
A.online storage migration
B.backup multiplexing
C.dynamic failover protection
D.LAN-free backup
E.storage server clustering
ANSWER: CE

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NO.17 Click the Task button. Click on the area where a post configuration successful (green) message would
appear.
Answer:

NO.18 What is the maximum number of hosts that can be connected to an MSA2012fc?
A.16
B.32
C.64
D.128
ANSWER: C

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NO.19 Which disk drive technology is best suited to sequential-access data and secondary storage
applications within an MSA2000 Family array system?
A.SCSI
B.SAS
C.FATA
D.SATA
E.FC SCSI
ANSWER: D

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NO.20 How many volume copies and snapshots are supported when using an MSA2012i storage array?
A.64 volume copies and 64 snapshots
B.64 volume copies and 128 snapshots
C.128 volume copies and 64 snapshots
D.128 volume copies and 128 snapshots
ANSWER: C

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