2014年3月31日星期一

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Code d'Examen: C-HANAIMP131
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate (Edition 2013) - SAP HANA)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the functionality of an aggregation node in a calculation view?(Choose two)
A. It calculates the sum, minimum, or maximum values for selected columns
B. It provides grouping of filter criteria
C. It provides deeper control over which columns are totaled
D. It determines the output structure of the calculation view
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which tasks can you perform with the data provisioning view in the SAP HANA studio?(Choose
two)
A. Start replication of tables
B. Filter replicated data
C. Apply data transformations
D. Suspend replication of tables
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which of the following is included in a rapid deployment solution (RDS) implemented on SAP
HANA?(Choose three)
A. Conversion of all BEx queries to analytic views
B. Guides and educational material
C. A mix of onsite and offsite consulting
D. The SAP HANA database license
E. SAP best practices and templates
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.4 Which of the following are characteristics of an operational data mart based on SAP
HANA?(Choose two)
A. It is based on analytic denormalized data models
B. It uses real-time replication of time-critical data
C. It runs directly on top of the operational data
D. It persists transformed data
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Which information model can you use with measures from multiple fact tables?
A. Analytic privilege
B. Attribute view
C. Analytic view
D. Calculation view
Answer: D

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NO.6 In a fuzzy search, when would you perform a freestyle search?
A. When you want to search with a low fuzziness threshold
B. When you want to search in only one column
C. When you want to search in multiple columns
D. When you want to search with a high fuzziness threshold
Answer: C

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NO.7 You want to enable the end user to decide at runtime how to restrict the data in an
information model.
Which of the following objects do you use?
A. Input parameter
B. Filter
C. Restricted measure
D. Variable
Answer: D

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NO.8 You would like to authorize a user to select and delete data from a specific column table. The
user should also be able to grant this authorization to other users.
Which privilege do you need to implement?
A. Analytic privilege
B. System privilege
C. Package privilege
D. Object privilege
Answer: D

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NO.9 What must you do to enable currency conversions with a fixed currency in an analytic view?
A. Set the Enable for Conversion option
B. Create a measure with the measure type Simple
C. Base the target currency on a currency column
D. Create the target currency using an input parameter
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which type of connection does Direct Extractor Connection (DXC) use to transfer data to SAP
HANA?
A. RFC connection
B. Secondary database connection
C. http connection
D. ODBC connection
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C-TBIT44-73
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certfied Development Associate - Process Integration with SAP NetWeaver (PI 7.3) (C_TBIT44_73))
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components use Enterprise Services Repository?
(Choose two)
A. SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse
B. SAP NetWeaver Portal
C. SAP NetWeaver Process Integration
D. SAP NetWeaver Mobile
E. SAP NetWeaver Developer Studio
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 In which cases do you need to use ccBPM processes? (Choose two)
A. When collecting messages
B. When querying databases
C. When using a synchronous/asynchronous bridge
D. When using scenarios that are based on an AEX installation
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Which conversion parameters are available in the SOAP adapter? (Choose two)
A. Keep Headers
B. Do Not Use SOAP Envelope
C. Sync/Async Bridge
D. File Content Conversion
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which step types can be used as the first step in an integration process?
A. Block
B. Receive
C. Wait
D. Send
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the standard SplitByValue function?
A. To split the payload
B. To replicate a value of a field that occurs once
C. To insert context changes into a queue
D. To split a string into substrings
Answer: C

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NO.6 The Advanced Adapter Engine is installed as a component on the Integration Server.
When would you install the non-central Advanced Adapter Engine?
A. When a firewall between the business system and the Integration Server prevents them from
communicating directly
B. When the business department requires Knowledge Management on a separate system
C. When you want to use cross-component business process management (ccBPM) in the Advanced
Adapter Engine
D. When you want to use the advanced monitoring capabilities of the Integration Engine
Answer: A

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NO.7 You want to build an operation mapping using multiple mapping programs per direction.
Which restrictions do you have to consider?
A. The output of each mapping program must fit the target message type.
B. The mapping programs are processed in the specified sequence from top to bottom.
C. The checkbox must be enabled in interface determination to preserve the sequence during the
runtime.
D. All the mapping programs have to belong to the same namespace.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following are characteristics of enterprise services? (Choose two)
A. They are based on global data types.
B. They are semantically harmonized across applications.
C. They can be easily used as imported archive objects.
D. They can be used to extend BAPIs.
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Which Web-services-related protocol is supported by SAP NetWeaver PI 7.3?
A. Web Services Description Language (WSDL)
B. WS-Reliable Messaging (WS-RM)
C. Representational state transfer (REST)
D. Open Data Protocol (OData)
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are working on a dual-stack system and want to configure an integration scenario with
one sender and two receivers. Each receiver uses two different service interfaces. The WS adapter is
used for each receiver. The sender provides an IDoc from an ABAP system.
How many sender agreements do you have to configure?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-916.2
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Specialist - IP Office Implement and Support Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 188 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three options does the IMS user have available in Microsoft?Outlook? (Choose three.)
A.Select IMS server.
B.Select Voicemail Box.
C.Select Voicemail server.
D.Select handset for VM playback.
E.Prompt before connecting to server.
Answer:B D E

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NO.2 Which file validates the version of software that is to be loaded into the 4600 Series Telephone set?
A.bbla0_83.scr
B.46xxsettings.txt
C.46xxsettings.scr
D.46xxupgrade.scr
Answer:D

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NO.3 Your customer has a single PRI installed on their IP Office system and they are reporting issues dialing
out. They are getting dead air and dropped calls. Which three can be enabled within the System Monitor
tool to troubleshoot the issue? (Choose three.)
A.ISDN / Events / Layer 1
B.ISDN / Packets / Layer 3 send & receive
C.System / Error
D.Call / Packets / Line Send
E.T1 / Line
Answer:A B C

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NO.4 A customer using an IP Office system with a single PRI line is reporting difficulties when dialing out.
What are two reasons for this happening? (Choose two.)
A.There are not sufficient channels available for the number of callers on the system.
B.The PRI clock quality is set to Network instead of Fallback.
C.The PRI clock quality is set to Fallback instead of Network.
D.The internal CSU is enabled.
Answer:A C

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NO.5 An IP Office solution is sold to a customer who needs to connect two existing sites over their LAN.
Which two are required by Avaya to ensure the VoIP connection and calls work properly? (Choose two.)
A.firewall / filter
B.network assessment
C.a separate voice network
D.static addresses for the IP Office
Answer:B D

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NO.6 Which two operating systems are supported by VoiceMail Pro? (Choose two.)
A.Microsoft Windows 2000
B.Microsoft Windows XP
C.Microsoft Windows 98 SE
D.Microsoft Windows NT
Answer:A B

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NO.7 You have an Avaya IP 412 Office with the largest supported voice compression modules (VCMs) on
the system. What is the maximum number of data channels supported on this system?
A.20
B.50
C.80
D.100
Answer:D

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NO.8 What is necessary to upgrade the firmware for the 4600/5600 series sets on an IP Office system?
A.Manager
B.serial cable
C.third-party FTP server
D.null modem cable
Answer:A

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NO.9 Which Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) options are available in the IP Office?
A.Disabled, Enabled
B.Server, Enabled, Client
C.Server, Disabled, Client, DialIn
D.Server, Client, Disabled
Answer:C

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NO.10 Which three pieces of information does System Status Application provide? (Choose three.)
A.configuration errors
B.local IP Office license status
C.trunk status
D.extension status
E.remote IP Office license statu
Answer:B C D

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NO.11 A customer wants to have a simple conference bridge with four permanent bridges set up off of a menu
in VoiceMail Pro. The customer also wants each bridge protected with a different static PIN. Where in the
setup of this scenario would you enter the PIN?
A.on the General tab in the menu action
B.on the General tab for each transfer action
C.on the Telephone Number field in the IP Office Short Code
D.in the Properties box for each option in the Touch Tone tab in the menu action
Answer:B

Avaya   132-S-916.2   132-S-916.2

NO.12 Recordings take up how much space on a hard drive?
A.2MB per minute
B.200KB per minute
C.1MB per minute
D.650KB per minute
Answer:C

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NO.13 An IP Office application will allow an individual to select protocols and interfaces that are to be traced
and decoded. The trace can either be captured directly to screen or as a log file for later analysis. Traces
from different protocols can be color coded to improve the clarity of large log files. Which application is
used for this?
A.Debug View
B.System Monitor
C.Delta Server
D.System Status Application
Answer:B

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NO.14 When configuring Session Initiated Protocol (SIP) trunks with SIP authorization using an IP address on
an IP Office system which option must be set in the SIP Line configuration form for the trunks to function
correctly?
A.The customer's NAT IP address must be entered on the SIP line form.
B.The Primary Authentication Name must be set.
C.The compression mode must be set to automatic.
D.The ITSP IP address must be entered on the SIP line form.
Answer:D

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NO.15 When using SIP or H.323 trunks and the System Status Application, which three problems can be
tested using the System Status Application? (Choose three.)
A.round trip delay
B.receive jitter
C.receive packet loss
D.Quality of Service (QoS) value
E.DSCP QoS value
Answer:A B C

Avaya   132-S-916.2   132-S-916.2   132-S-916.2

NO.16 A customer reports that IP Office users cannot access voicemail at certain times. Avaya has requested
that the customer reproduce the issue and provide traces. Which three steps can the customer take to
reproduce the reported issue? (Choose three.)
A.The customer can place test calls into voicemail.
B.The customer can use the 'IP Office System Monitor" and VoiceMail Pro debug logs to record system
activity.
C.The customer can use System Monitor to "Call Sync" on all calls in the system.
D.The customer can reboot the IP Office to see if it resolves the issue.
E.The customer can record the date and time of the reported issue.
Answer:A B E

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NO.17 An IP Office telephone user reports that a phone is not ringing for outside calls. What are three possible
reasons why this is happening? (Choose three.)
A.The IP Office locale is set to "A-Law".
B.The phone does not have the user profile logged onto the phone.
C.The ring volume is too low to hear.
D.The phone has been set to "Offhook Station".
E.The phone is set to "Do Not Disturb".
Answer:B C E

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NO.18 When installing IP Hardphones, the engineer wants to use the IEEE 802.3af standard to _____.
A.supply AC voltage to the IP Office
B.supply power to the IP Hardphones
C.perform Layer 3 routing for IP Hardphones
D.filter multicast traffic to the appropriate IP Hardphone
Answer:B

Avaya   certification 132-S-916.2   132-S-916.2   132-S-916.2

NO.19 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, what would the default gateway for IP Office 1 be?
A.10.10.1.1
B.10.10.1.2
C.192.168.10.100
D.135.122.34.90
Answer:D

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NO.20 Your customer has an IP Office 412 system running version 4.2 where calls at times ring to wrong
extension numbers. Which three steps would you take to reproduce or validate the issue? (Choose three.)
A.Use System Status Application to watch the call progress to verify which extension the call is ringing to
and why.
B.Use System Monitor and the Call / Packet information to follow the call progress to identify the issue.
C.Use the telephone's display for the extension that is incorrectly ringing to determine how the call was
routed.
D.Use the Call Status application to watch the call progress to verify how the call is being routed and to
what extension it is being directed to.
E.Use the IP Office Manager application to verify that the VoiceMail call flow is configured correctly.
Answer:A B C

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-900.7
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya IP Telephony Design Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

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NO.1 The S87xx platform is available as a net new system in which configuration?
A. Voice Bearer over ATM
B. Stand Alone (S87xx only)
C. Traditional G3R without IP
D. Voice Bearer over IP (IP Connect)
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7 examen   132-S-900.7

NO.2 A customer has an Avaya S87xx Media Server with an Avaya G650 Media Gateway. They want the
remote site tied-in to the main. The remote site has a DSL line for Internet access. They currently have a
secure VPN tunnel to the main site and want to implement VoIP over this tunnel.
What is your biggest concern as a designer?
A. NAT issues
B. implementation issues
C. Security cannot be guaranteed
D. Voice quality cannot be guaranteed
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-900.7 examen   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7

NO.3 Your customer solution requirements call for a mix of SIP and H.323 endpoints. Which entity in the SIP
Infrastructure can perform routing of sessions invitations, authentications and accounting functions?
A. SIP Proxy
B. SIP redirect
C. SIP registrar
D. SIP media gateway controller
Answer: A

Avaya   certification 132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7

NO.4 You are preparing to design an IP Telephony-based S87xx. You are assisting the client in determining
the type of QoS/CoS they should incorporate on their data network.
What do you recommend? (Choose two.)
A. Routed networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
B. Switched networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
C. Mixed networks should use either DSCP or IEEE 802.1p/Q.
D. Routed networks should use DiffServ Code Points (DSCP).
Answer: BD

certification Avaya   132-S-900.7   certification 132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7 examen   certification 132-S-900.7   certification 132-S-900.7

NO.5 You have a corporate site with an S87xx Media Server in location A, and a remote site with an
G700/S8300 LSP processor in Location B. The WAN connection goes down.
In what sequence will the G700 register with the S8300?
A. Each H.248 gateway will reboot and register with the S8300 LSP when it comes back up.
B. The S8300 LSP processor reboots, and then notifies each H.248 gateway it is now the primary call
processor.
C. The S8300 LSP processor notifies each H.248 gateway in the media controller list that it is now the
primary call processor.
D. Each H.248 gateway will detect that the S87xx Media Server is not available and will reregister with the
next Media Server in the media controller list.
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7 examen   certification 132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7

NO.6 A customer is looking to add a remote location to the S8730. They will have six IP telephones that will
require PoE, two analog CO lines and require basic survivability. Which of the following would you
recommend?
A. G250 - analog / SLS
B. G250 - analog / LSP
C. G350 - analog / SLS
D. IG550 / SLS
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7

NO.7 Which two design issues relate to increasing security in VoIP converged solutions? (Choose two.)
A. suggesting upgrading LAN switches to support QoS
B. defining VLANs to limit access from specific IP endpoints
C. considering encryption on IP calls for protection from eavesdropping
D. considering G.729 compression to protect IP calls from eavesdropping
Answer: BC

Avaya   132-S-900.7 examen   certification 132-S-900.7   certification 132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7

NO.8 Your client's department store business has 24 locations worldwide. Each location has its own
communications switch and is included in a QSIG network. The stores have standardized on specific
extension numbers representing departments. The client is considering moving to a single, distributed
S8700 system but is concerned with the loss of dial plan functionalities.
How do you address the client's concern?
A. provide Uniform Dial Plan software
B. utilize ACM Multi-location Dial Plan software
C. create unique extensions per location for each application
D. relate that standard S87xx dial plan software will address the issues
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-900.7   certification 132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7 examen

NO.9 A client is implementing an S87xx Media Server with several G650 Media Gateways. They are
concerned with overheating in the equipment room, especially in the equipment power units.
Which two conditions cause a G650 power supply to initiate an emergency shutdown? (Choose two.)
A. overvoltage
B. overheating
C. undervoltage
D. high humidity
Answer: AB

Avaya   132-S-900.7   certification 132-S-900.7

NO.10 An RFP for a Interactive Voice Response (IVR) unit and mid-sized communication system has been
released. You are responsible for determining the design solution. The RFP states that the IVR platform
must be engineered to handle 135 25-second messages during the busy hour. You calculate this
requirement to equal 47 ports.
If you provide 47 ISDN PRI trunks (two ISDN PRI facilities), which two traffic concerns must you consider?
(Choose two.)
A. No trunk growth is available on the ISDN PRI facilities.
B. 47 active trunks overload the two ISDN PRI facilities, seriously affecting traffic load and call
completions.
C. Considering there is only one channel for signaling, a backup D channel cannot be provided, affecting
traffic if the D channel fails.
D. ISDN PRI facilities direct from the central office limit the caller's ability to connect to the proper
resource, causing increased usage.
Answer: AC

Avaya examen   certification 132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7

NO.11 If a customer has multiple systems from different vendors and wants to network them together, which
software should be used?
A. DCS
B. ARS
C. UDP
D. QSIG
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7   certification 132-S-900.7   certification 132-S-900.7

NO.12 Within an S8500 Server, 25 IP Telephony endpoints are connected to 10 digital sets, 10 IP sets, and 5
CO trunks.
How many TN2602 Media Processor boards are required if G.729 is incorporated?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

Avaya examen   certification 132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7   certification 132-S-900.7

NO.13 A sales engineer completes an S87xx Media Server/G650 Media Gateway design which includes IP
Telephony, multi-locations, and LAN/WAN integration. One of the deliverables for handoff to the
implementation team is the network region design.
What four IP endpoint characteristics may be included in the network region design document? (Choose
four.)
A. codec set
B. UDP port ranges
C. 802.1p/Q settings
D. VLAN assignments
E. identification of locations
Answer: ABCE

Avaya   certification 132-S-900.7   certification 132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7 examen

NO.14 In a distributed S87xx Media Server system with G650 Media Gateways in 3 port networks, what is the
distance concern with the TDM cable length?
A. Due to the length of the TDM cable, the slack must be coiled and secured to the back of the PN.
B. The TDM cable can be ordered to custom fit the system. The designer must know the PN to G650
layout.
C. If the incorrect cable length attribute is chosen, it will not allow the associated G650s to connect to the
PN.
D. Due to its limited length, each G650 of a PN must be co-located in the same 19 inch data rack as the
rest of the PN.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which three should be investigated when validating a wireless network design? (Choose three.)
A. installed ductwork and walls
B. locations of network servers
C. other wireless networks in the area
D. operating system of user machines
E. environmental, moisture, temperature variations
Answer: ACE

Avaya examen   132-S-900.7   certification 132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7

NO.16 The customer has a multi node LAN with connectivity to a 16 location multi-vendor (Juniper, Cisco,
3Com and Avaya) WAN.
When implementing VoIP on this network, which two routing protocols should be implemented? (Choose
two.)
A. RIP
B. IGRP
C. ID 10t
D. OSPF
Answer: AD

certification Avaya   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7

NO.17 Which three are QoS/CoS recommendations that the Avaya Solution Designer can make to
optimize an all Avaya Converged IP Solution? (Choose three.)
A. Switched networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
B. Routed networks should use DiffServ Code Points.
C. Port priority can also be used to enhance 802.1p/Q and DiffServ.
D. Mixed networks should choose only one (802.1p/Q or DSCP) as a best practice.
Answer: ABC

Avaya   132-S-900.7 examen   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7

NO.18 Your client is considering a VoIP application for their S8500 Media Server and G650 Media Gateway.
Due to the time-sensitive nature of VoIP applications, several issues should be discussed prior to arriving
at a final design.
Which two VoIP guidelines should you discuss with the customer? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP should be implemented on an entirely switched network.
B. VoIP will cause some discourse due to lower voice quality than TDM calls.
C. VoIP endpoints should be placed on separate subnets or VLANs based on communities of interest.
D. When PCs are attached to IP phones, the uplink to the Ethernet switch should be at least 20 Mbps.
Answer: AC

Avaya   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7   certification 132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7 examen   132-S-900.7 examen

NO.19 A customer wants to use an Avaya S87xx Media Server with Avaya G700 Gateways at remote
locations. Each G700 Gateway will include an S8300 Local Survivable Processor and approximately 75
IP sets incorporating G.711.
What Avaya feature allows IP sets to register with the S8300 if connectivity to the S87xx is lost?
A. Local CLAN board
B. Alternate Gatekeeper
C. S8300 Auto-Registration
D. Gateway Alternate Redirection
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-900.7 examen   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7 examen   132-S-900.7

NO.20 In discussing an organization's DHCP strategy, you find they distribute IP address assignment for IP
telephones at the branch location via the telephony gateway.
Which two gateways are viable options to support the customer's DHCP strategy? (Choose two.)
A. G250 Media Gateway
B. G350 Media Gateway
C. G650 Media Gateway
D. G700 Media Gateway
Answer: AB

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-720.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Specialist Call Center Implement and Support Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

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NO.1 You have just installed Avaya P Agent R-6 on the computers for all 150 agents. All of the computers can
ping the Communication Manager (CM), but only 100 of the agents can log into their lP Agent station.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The ®M ax i m u m C oncu rr en tl y R eg i s t e r ed I P S t a ti on¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® s ys -parameters customer-options ¯
screen is set to 100.
B. The ® I P S t a ti on¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® s ys -parameters customer-options ¯ sc r een i s se t t o¡ n
C. The ®M u lti m ed i a M od ¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® chan ge s tat o n ¡ ¯ fo r m i s s et t o ¡ ® E nh n c
D. The ®Phone Fea t u r e¡¯ w i nd o w o n t h ¡® S tat ion A dm i n istrat io n f o r m nee d s t o be s e t o ¡® -In ¯.
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1

NO.2 The field service technician is responsible for which two tasks? (Choose two )
A. onsite equipment inventorV
B. application of powerto onsrte equipment
C. obtaining necessary TCP/ IP addresses
D. ensunng the equipment room is ready for installation
Answer: A, B

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.3 For single site call centers where Call Management System (CMS) data is critical to their business,
which two benefits does the CMS provide for minimum data loss? (Choose two.)
A. disk mirroring
B. Survivable CMS
C. high availability CMS
D. duplicated processors
Answer: A, C

Avaya examen   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1

NO.4 A customer adding a second ACD to an existing Avaya Call Management System (CMS). The
customer also wants to add External Call History (ECH) capablrties and Network Printing Interfaces
(NWF), The MuIti-Ste Routing Interface supports one 1CM Penpheral Gateway (PG) and DNS services.
Which implementation affects service to the CMS?
A. adding 1WP
B. adding DNS services
C. adding Multi-Site Routing
D. adding ECH
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1

NO.5 Your customer is migrating their call center from basic ACD to EAS.
After the EAS feature has been licensed on the system, what are three tasks that must be completed to
facilitate the EAS conversion? (Choose three.)
A. EAS must be optioned on the Feature Related System Parameters form.
B. The CMS (if present) switch administration for the ACO must be changed to support EAS.
C. Queue Status Indicators must be re-administered.
D. Agent work mode buttons on voice terminals must be modified.
E. Administer hunt groups for Redirect on No Answer (RONA).
Answer: A, B, D

Avaya examen   certification 132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.6 Your customer is implementing third-party data directed routing
Which three ctor steps would cause an adjunct routing request to be terminated? (Choose three.)
A. check split
B. wait
C. queue
D. go to step
E. converse on split
Answer: A, C, E

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1

NO.7 Your customer wants to periodically adjust agent skill assignments and preferences automatically
(without human intervention) based on real-time agent sales results in their CRM application.
Which solution would satisfy the requirement?
A. Implement a custom CTI application which will change the agent skills.
B. Pursue a custom application through Avaya CSI
C. Use Avaya Site Administration Scheduling.
D. Use CMS Supervisor scripting.
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1

NO.8 Your customer is implementing an AE Services 4 0 and has purchased the software only solution.
What hardware and software must the customer provide?
A. server hardware platform and Red Hat Enterprise Edition 3
B. server hardware platform and Red Hat Enterprise Edition 4
C. server hardware platform, Red Hat Enterprise Edition , and all third-party software required for AE
D. Services server hardware platform, Red Hat Enterprise Edition 3. and all third-party software required
for AE Services
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.9 Your customer is reporting that after hours callers are being disconnected. Recently they changed the
out-of-hours vector from routing to an internal voice mailbox to an off site answering service using a
route-to digits step
What is happening?
A. Dial ahead digits are being discarded
B. In the associated vector, coverage on route-to digits step was set to no.
C. In the associated vector, coverage on route-to digits step was set to °yee
D. Class of Restriction on associated VON has too low of an FRL to allow outcalling
Answer: D

certification Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.10 Your customer is implementing a non-AVAYA CI/LAN application in conjunction with Communication
Manager (CM) 4 0 What is the minimum software licensing required on Communication Manager and AE
Services?
A. ASAI Core on CM and TSAPI Basic and Ad ¯i anced on AE Se r M ces
B. ASAI Core on CM and CvtAN on AE Ser ¯.i ces
C. ASAI Core, ASAI Plus and Cli Stations on CM and CVLAN on AE Services
D. CTI Propnetary Adjunct inks on CM and CVL.AN on AE Services
Answer: B

Avaya examen   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1

NO.11 Your customer has commissioned agents who take both service related calls as well as sales
opportunity calls The agents receive a commission on all sales. Which Business Advocate feature would
assure that agents are provided equal opportunity to take sales related calls?
A. Service Objective
B. Percentage Allocation Distribution
C. Service Level Supervisor
D. Reserve Agent
Answer: B

Avaya examen   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.12 You are a team member assigned on a project to install a new Avaya S87XX Media Server and a new
Avaya Call Management System (CMS). Who is responsible for identifying what equipment has arrived at
the customers site?
A. the field technician
B. the client executive
C. the program manager
D. the remote field engineer (RFE)
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.13 A customer wishes to allocate the subnet 255.255252.0 to the ® cus t o m e r LAN ne t w o r k i n t e rf ac ¡¯ o n t h
CMS. Which file must be amended to ensure that this net mask is correctly allocated when the CMS
system is rebooted?
A. /etc!subnet
B. /etc/netmasks
C. /etcfnetworks
D. /etcfhosts
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.14 The events table provides a list of events, a brief description that displays on the screen for the event,
and a full explanation of the event. In what document can this table be found?
A. Feature Description and Implementation for Avaya Communication Manager
B. Administrator Guide for Avaya Communication Manager
C. ACD Guide for Avaya Communication Manager
D. Avaya Call Center Release 4.0 Call Vectoring and Expert Agent Selection (EAS) Guide
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.15 Your client needs to address agent morale issues thin their call center. These issues are tied to those
agents who staff a higher number of skills resulting in more time spent on ACO calls (also known as hot
seats ¯).
Which Avaya capability should be used to help eliminate ® ho t sea t ¡¯ in a c a ll ce nter
A. Auto-Reserve Agents
B. Least Occupied Agent (LOA)
C. Expert Agent Selection (EAS)
D. Percent Allocation Distribution (PAD)
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1

NO.16 Which of the following is not a valid connecbvity test available using the Applications Enablement
Services Utilities menu available from OAM?
A. TSAPI Test
B. Ping Host
C. ASAI Test
D. Traceroute
Answer: D

Avaya examen   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1

NO.17 You have just received a call from a customer that agent 6024 is no longer receiving calls for skill 6.
The customer informs you that the agent was receiving calls yesterday for this skill. You display the agent
login ID and inform the customer that skill 6 is no longer assigned in the agents profile. The customer
wants to know when the agents profile was changed. Keep in mind that changes to agent profiles for this
customer can only be made through the Media Server,
Which command would you use to determine when a change was made to this agents profile?
A. display changes extension 6024
B. list history
C. display agent 6024
D. displayevents 6024
E. trace agents
Answer: B

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1

NO.18 Your customer would like to be able to collect call center data when the enterprise fragments using a
remote gateway. Since this is a small location, an LSP was installed to support the users Which system
would allow the customer to collect and then add data back to the main Call Management System (CMS)?
A. HACMS
B. Primary CMS
C. BCMR-D
D. Survivable CMS
Answer: D

Avaya examen   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.19 Which three statements descnbe the correct use of the asaiuui vector vanable when communicating
with an adjunct computer telephony integration application? (Choose three.)
A. Valid lengths of the asaiuui vector variable range from 1 to 24 digits
B. The asaiuu, vector variable allows the adjunct CTI application to set a variable for use in vector
processing
C. A common use for the asaiuui variable in a vector step is to test the assigned value against a threshold
value.
D. The scope of the asaiuui variables is only local
E. Once a value is assigned, it cannot be modified or changed byrne adjunct
Answer: B, C, D

Avaya examen   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1

NO.20 Your customer is implementing Application Enablement Services for a TSAPI application. What
represents the recommended TCPI1P connectMty for AE Services?
A. AE Services etho and AE Services ethi both connect to the local LAN.
B. AE Services etho connects to a dedicated CLAN, AE Services ethi connects to a second dedicated
CLAN. ME Services eth2 connects to the local LAN.
C. AE Services etho connects to the customer application server1 ME Services ethi connects to a
dedicated CLAN.
D. AE Services etho connects to a private LANfV1..AN for the transport links to Communication Manager,
AE Services ethi connects to the customers LAN.
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.21 Your customer has basic reporting requirements that include agent level skill reporting for 12
simultaneous supervisors accessing real-time information using PCs over their Local Area Network. What
is the most cost effective reporting offer that meets these requirements?
A. BCMR Desktop
B. BCMS
C. CMS
D. Operational Analyst
Answer: C

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.22 Your customer must be able to confirm that clients have input valid credit card numbers.
As a backup to using a custom CTI application, which vector variable should be used to validate account
numbers?
A. DIV
B. SEL
C. CATR
D. MOD1O
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1

NO.23 A customer wants to know the definition of the Average ACD Time on the Historical Split Skill Summary
Interval Report. Which documentation would you reference in order to obtain this information?
A. Avaya Call Management System Supervisor Release 14 Reports
B. Avaya CMS Supervisor Release 14 Report Designer
C. Avaya CMS Capacities
D. Avaya Call Management System Release 14 Administration
Answer: A

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.24 You ask the Avaya Call Management System (CMS) administrator to increase the measured trunks.
Since the administrator has not changed parameters before, CMS administration documentation must be
accessed. Which three sections are needed to change parameters? (Choose three.)
A. Free Space Allocation
B. Data Storage Allocation
C. Trunk Group assignment
D. Data Collection
E. Disk Allocation
Answer: A, B, D

Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.25 Your customer wants the ability to automatically notity Avaya Call Management System (CMS)
Supervisors when there are excessive calls in queue to be answered. A possible solution is to implement
the Communication and Solution Integration CMS Supervisor Threshold Paging Package
Which condition must be met for the CMS Supervisor Threshold Paging Package to work?
A. The CMS must have access to the public network.
B. The agent must have remote text messaging capabilities
C. The supervisor must has a CMS login ID
D. The refresh rate for checking the users thresholds can be changed.
Answer: A

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.26 You are working an intermittent issue with Avaya IP Agent R6 and have enabled Event Logging on the
end-users computer to capture log files. You need to instruct the end-user how to insert an event mark in
the log when the problem occurs.
Which keyboard combination do you have the end-user press to mark the event?
A. Alt + M
B. Alt + E
C. Ctrl + E
D. CtrI+M
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1

NO.27 When turning on the CMS application an installation engineer receives the message shown:
®C heck i ng t he S ys t e m Tunab l es f o r CM S va l ues m d : m irr o r ed_ r oo t _ fl ag MUST be se t t o 1 CM S canno t r un
without correct tunable values. Error occurred while processing request..... see
/cmsfinstallllogdir/admin.log for detaiIs ¯
Which file will require amending to resolve this problem?
A. /etcftunables
B. /etc/system
C. /cms/insta llftunables
D. /etc/defaultlmirror
Answer: B

certification Avaya   132-S-720.1   certification 132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1

NO.28 For a High Availabihty CMS design supporting 4 ACDs with the CMS servers co-located with a local
ACD, the customer should have available which of the following Ethernet switch port configurations to
support the installation?
A. 2 Ethernet switch ports at each remote Communication Manager location I Ethernet switch port for
each Communication Manager co-located with a CMS server. 1 Ethernet switch port for each CMS server
B. 1 Ethernet switch port for each Communication Manager and 2 Ethernet switch ports for the Primary
and Secondary CMS servers.
C. 2 Ethernet swich ports at each remote Communication Manager location. 1 Ethernet switch port for
each Communication Manager co-located with a CMS server. 2 Ethernet switch ports for each CIViS
server.
D. 2 Ethernet switch ports at each Communication Manager location and 2 Ethernet switch ports for each
CMS server (Primary and Seconday)
Answer: D

certification Avaya   132-S-720.1 examen   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.29 Which file is responsible for setting up a default route on a CMS system?
A. /etc/hosts
B. /etc/router
C. /etc/deftultrouter
D. /etc/netstat
Answer: C

Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen

NO.30 You have been assigned a project to add an ACD to an existing Avaya Call Management System (CMS).
The customer has requested that Avaya provide a turn-key implementation Which three resources will
you schedule? (Choose three)
A. Communication solutions integration - provisioning
B. Communicabon and Solution Integration (C&Sl)
C. software specialist
D. on-site technician
E. Network Integration Center (NIC)
Answer: A, B, D

certification Avaya   132-S-720.1   132-S-720.1 examen   certification 132-S-720.1

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Code d'Examen: 6202.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Contact Center Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 You are installing a standalone Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) The Application will be
installed on a Windows Server 2008 operating system. As a part of the Windows Server 2008 operating
system preparation the IPv6 option needs to be removed What is one way to disable IPv6 functionality?
A. IPv6 is disabled by default on Windows Server 2008 operating system
B. Perform a NET USE IPV6 DISABLE within a command window
C. Under Control Panel, go to System and Security and remove IPv6 addressing
D. Right chick on the Local Area Connection Adaptor and select Properties, then clear the IPv6 check box
Answer: D

certification Avaya   6202.1   certification 6202.1   6202.1   6202.1

NO.2 You have completed the stand-alone installation of Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA)
software on a fully prepared Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server The CCMA cannot establish a
connection to the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) What is one of the first steps to troubleshoot
the problem.?
A. Reinstall CCMA
B. Ensure that the correct sys-admin password is being used
C. Change the IP multicast sending address on the CCMS server
D. Ensure that the CCMS and CCMA servers have been added to a domain
Answer: B

certification Avaya   6202.1   6202.1   certification 6202.1   6202.1

NO.3 Which pre-installation preparations must be completed on a Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server
before installing Avaya Aura Contact Center server applications?
A. Enable IPV6 . Ensure SNMP is disabled. Enable NetBIOS. The ELAN card must be first in the binding
order
B. Enable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Enable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet (CLAN) card
must the first in the binding order
C. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Disable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet (CLAN) card
must be first in the binding order
D. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled .Disable NetBIOS .The ELAN card must be first in the binding
order
Answer: C

Avaya examen   certification 6202.1   6202.1   6202.1

NO.4 In a SIP based Avaya Aura Contact Center, the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) supports
secure Transport Layer Security (TLS) communication When implementing Security Certificate
management for TLS in the CCMS, what is the first step that must be accomplished?
A. Create the Certificate Store in the CCMS
B. Apply the Signed Certificate to the CCMS
C. Create a Certificate Signing Request (CSR) file from the CMS
D. Apply the Certificate Authority (CA) Root Certificate to the CCMS
Answer: D

Avaya   6202.1   6202.1 examen   6202.1 examen   6202.1

NO.5 You are preparing a Windows 2008 Server for Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) and Server
Utility installation Which operation on the server can the Server Utility perform?
A. Perform event preferences
B. Perform database restores
C. Administer Contact Center Agent login credentials
D. Modify Real-Time Display interface parameters
Answer: A

certification Avaya   6202.1 examen   6202.1   6202.1 examen   6202.1   certification 6202.1

NO.6 You are installing Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) on a standalone server. Which
statement regarding passwords associated with CCMA running on a Windows Server 2008 operating
system is true?
A. The iceAdmin user account can be deleted during the CCMA installation
B. The iceAdmin user account password must be established during installation of CCMA
C. If the iceAdmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as webadmin of any other
user
D. If the default webadmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as iceAdmin or as
any other user
Answer: B

certification Avaya   6202.1   6202.1   certification 6202.1   6202.1 examen

NO.7 In an Avaya Aura Contact Center, what does enabling Open do?
A. It permits agents to utilize the Avaya OpenQueue Desktop for agent skills that have agents logged in
with the correct training and knowledge sets to handle calls
B. It allows third parties including Contact Center MultiMedia (CCMM) to create, read, and delete
multimedia and voice contacts in Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
C. It gives agents and Call Center supervisors the ability to manage multiple simultaneous contact types
such as voice, outbound voice, email, chat, IM and voicemail
D. It provides extended call queuring functionality for the Avaya Aura Contact Center by implementing
the same functionality as the Automatic Call Distribution Queue including useful features like visualization
Answer: B

Avaya   6202.1 examen   6202.1 examen   certification 6202.1   certification 6202.1

NO.8 A company is planning to implement a stand-alone Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) license
with 50 Voice Agents Which license type should the company purchase?
A. Essential
B. Nodal NCC
C. Nodal Enterprise
D. Corporate Enterprise
Answer: A

Avaya examen   6202.1   certification 6202.1

NO.9 After completing the in installation of the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS), you want to display
the installation log. What is the path to this log?
A. D:\Avaya\Logs\PV|
B. C:\Logs\CCMS
C. C:\Avaya\Logs\Sysops
D. D:\Log\CMS
Answer: C

Avaya   6202.1   certification 6202.1   6202.1   6202.1

NO.10 Which operating system features should be enabled in Windows Server 2008 operating system before
you install Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA)?
A. Windows Server Backup for running CCMA Server Backups and Internet Information Services (IIS)
B. TFTP Client to Backup of the CCMA configuration files to remote TFTP Server and XPS Viewer to view
reports on the server
C. Storage Manager for SAN s for managing the remote backups and IIS
D. IIS and XPS Viewer to view reports on the server
Answer: A

Avaya examen   6202.1   6202.1 examen   6202.1

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Code d'Examen: 6207.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura Contact Recording and Avaya Aura® Quality Monitoring Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 62 Q&As

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NO.1 A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM) software on a
client site, and needs to configure the Software. What needs to be configured at level1?
A. Switches
B. Data Connections
C. Servers
D. Sites
Answer: D

Avaya   6207.1 examen   6207.1 examen   6207.1

NO.2 A technician is installing Avaya Aura Viewer on a large customer site with 500 recording channels. The
customer has an existing SQL database that they want to use. What would be the correct option for this?
A. Put the database and Viewer on the same server.
B. Put the Viewer on a separate server.
C. Put the Avaya Contact Recording Master (with no IP recording), the TDM Recorder, the database and
the Viewer on the same server.
D. Put the database, the Viewer, and the Avaya Aura Archive on the same server.
Answer: B

Avaya   certification 6207.1   6207.1   6207.1   6207.1

NO.3 It is stronglyrecommendedto install theRedHatoperatingsystem (OS) from the kickstartfile(ks.cfg).
Which three components are necessary to create a ks.cfg file using the kickstarttool? (Choose three)
A. The IP addresses of the network interfaces
B. The name of extraRedHat Package manager (RPM) packages tobe installed
C. TheMAC address of the NetworkInterface Card(NIC) Eth0
D. The IP address of the Network Timeprotocol (NTP)server
E. The/var partition size
Answer: ADE

Avaya   certification 6207.1   6207.1   6207.1

NO.4 A technicianhas finished installing an Avaya Aura Archive system thathas been addedto an
existingsolution, consisting of three Avaya Aura Contact Recording(Avaya CR) servers and one Avaya
AuraViewer system. Before startingthe Archive, what can be done toensure that calls canbe archived?
A. fromAuraarchive server, ping each of the Avaya CR servers by means of the name configured inthe
"Machine Name"fieldinthe"Capture Platform Information" windowinside theViewerapplication.
B. FromArchiveserver, ping each Avaya CR servers by means oftheirIp-addresses.
C. Check thatthe EWareCalls databasewas createdduring archive installation.
D. Verify from the"Recorder Status/Server" window on the AvayaCR thatthe "Linkto Viewer" field
isshowing "UP".
Answer: A

certification Avaya   certification 6207.1   6207.1

NO.5 A technician has configured one Avaya Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) system to be used only 1
Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM). Everything has been configured under the "Operation/Quality
Monitoring" tab in the Avaya CR administration window, and the "link to Quality" shows UP on the
"Recorder Status/Server" window. After a few calls are made, it is discovered that no calls are being
recorded correctly.
What are two possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
A. The field "Can he Service Observed" is set to "N" for the Class of Restriction (COR) assigned the
recorder ports. The field "Can be a Service Observer" is set to "N" for the COR assigned to the extension
b-ordered.
B. The field "Can be Service Observed" is set to "N" for the COR for the agent logged in on the extension
being recorded.
C. The field "Can be a Service Observer" is set to "N" for the COR assigned to the recorder ports.
D. The field "Can be Service Observed" Is set to "N" for the COR assigned to the extension being
recorded.
Answer: CD

certification Avaya   certification 6207.1   6207.1   6207.1

NO.6 While waiting to activate an Avaya Aura Contact recording (Avaya CR) license, some tests are run with
the five-day license. Once the full license is obtained, what is the path to update the Avaya CR to the full
license?
A. System > License > Change License
B. System > Manage Users > Change License
C. General Setup > Recorder > License
D. General Setup > Recorder > Key Management Server
Answer: A

Avaya examen   6207.1 examen   certification 6207.1

NO.7 A technician has installed a now Avaya Aura Viewer server and configured It to store data coming from
five different Avaya Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) systems. The technician has created just a query
for testing functionality and is able to retrieve calls and play them. The customer was called for
information but they notice that there are no calls associated to one of the Avaya CRs (name ver2).
What are two possible causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The query has not been released to Server2.
B. Server2 is a standby recorder for one of the other Avaya CRs, so it did not record any calls ' time
intervals the query was fun.
C. Server2 was not included as a "Capture Platform" into the Viewer Administration page.
D. Grant rights were not granted to the customer for Server2.
E. Server2 was not included as a "Location" in the Viewer Administration page.
Answer: AC

Avaya examen   certification 6207.1   6207.1   6207.1 examen

NO.8 A technician has just installed an Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) system that uses Station Bulk
Recording, the customer has provided the list of extensions, login IDs and skills that need to be recorded,
and the technician wants to try one first to validate the configuration.
Which statement describes how to verify that the system is configured correctly.?
A. Add one of the agent login IDs in the table "Station to be Recorder" under "Operation/Station Bulk|
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one the recorder ports has been assigned to the
extension where the agent is logged in, and that the state shows "Connected".
B. Add one of the extensions in the table "Station to be Recorder"under "Operation/Station Bulk
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one of the recorder ports has been assigned to
the extension, and that the state shows "Connected".
C. No extensions in the system need to be configured as they will automatically be picked up by the
system, once the field "Filter Calls by VDN and/or Skill Hunt Group" under Operation/ Station Bulk
Recording" has been populated with the skills provided.
D. Add one of the extensions in the table "Station to be Recorder" under "Operation/Station Bulk
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one of the recorder ports has been assigned to
the extension, and that the state shows "Idle".
Answer: B

Avaya   6207.1   6207.1   6207.1   certification 6207.1

NO.9 A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM) software on a
client site, and needs to configure the software. The Avaya QM solution is being deployed as a single
server solution. As part of the configuration the Voice Cards must be specified.
Which kind of voice card should be created?
A. Dialogic D/240JCT
B. Dialogic D/82JCT
C. VR1000
D. Dialogic DSE DL-300x
Answer: B

certification Avaya   6207.1   certification 6207.1   6207.1 examen

NO.10 You have just installed one Avaya Aura viewer system and have made some test calls that appear to
have been recorded successfully by the Avaya Aura Contact Recoding (Avaya CR) system. While being
recorded, one of the test calls was put on and then taken of hold. When you run a query using Avaya CR
"Search and replay" you expect to __________ and when you run a query from Viewer, in the Viewer
query Results Windows you expect to _______ for the same call.
A. see two segments which can be connected by means of Universal Call ID (UCID) and you will have to
listen to two audio files; see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file playing the whole
conversation
B. see two segments which can be connected by means of UCID and you will have to listen to two audio
files; see two segments and you will hear two audio files playing
C. see one segment and you will hear one audio file that stops playing right after the call has b-put on hold;
see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file playing the whole conversation
D. see two segments which can be connected by means of UCID and you will have to listen to two audio
files; see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file stopping right after the call has been put
on hold
Answer: A

Avaya   6207.1 examen   6207.1   6207.1   6207.1   6207.1

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Code d'Examen: 3600
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Ethernet Routing Switch Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 129 Q&As

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NO.1 To confirm that routed Split Multi-Link Trunking (RSMLT) will work on a set of VLANs, which network
design aspect should be considered?
A. RSMLT is enabled on each SMLT VLAN on which the function is required.
B. RSMLT is enabled on the VLAN group
C. Router 1 always owns the network
D. RSMLT is enabled on all SMLT VLANs
Answer: A

certification Avaya   3600   certification 3600   3600

NO.2 Which set of procedures will upgrade the boot monitor on an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 with
a single 8692SF module?
A. Copy the new image to flash.
Activate the new image with SF module in service.
B. Copy the new image to flash.
Boot the new image.
C. Modify the boot choice for run-time image.
Boot the new image.
D. Copy the new image to flash.
Modify the boot choice for run-time image.
Boot the new image.
Answer: B

Avaya examen   3600 examen   3600   3600   certification 3600   3600

NO.3 One of the benefits of the Ethernet Routing switch (ERS) 8300 switch is its ability to provide
power-over-Ethernet (PoE). When implementing PoE on the ERS 8300 there are certain power supply
requirements to consider. The 8301AC produces 1140W and 1770W and the 8302AC produces 850W
and 1400W depending on the input voltage for both cases.
If there are eight 8648TX-PWR modules in a chassis, each needing 200W for Powered Devices (PI))
which power supply configuration is recommended?
A. One 8301AC power supply with 240VAC input voltage
B. Two 8302AC power supplies with 120VAC input voltage
C. Three 83CAC power supplies with 240VAC input voltage
D. Two 8301AC and one 8302Ac for redundancy with 240VAC input voltage
Answer: C

Avaya examen   3600   certification 3600   certification 3600

NO.4 The trace level 9 3 command accomplish?
A. It captures BGP events at a terse level.
B. It captures packets copied to the CPU at a verbose level.
C. It shows CPU utilization.
D. It captures RCC IP events at verbose level.
Answer: B

Avaya   3600 examen   certification 3600

NO.5 What is a characteristic of Routed Split Multi-Link Trunking (RSMLT) configuration?
A. RSMLT is only configured on edge SMLT connections.
B. RSMLT uses priority values to distinguish between the primary and backup routers
C. RSMLT routers are implemented with Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF)-Lite routers
D. RSMLT is always used in conjunction with routing protocols and SMLT connections.
Answer: D

Avaya examen   3600 examen   3600   3600   3600   certification 3600

NO.6 Which feature can be used on a Split Multi Link Trunking (SMLT) with a Sod Down option?
A. Extended control packet limit (ext-CP)
B. Discard untagged frames
C. Simple Loop Prevention Protocol (SLPP)
D. Virtual Link Aggregation Protocol (VLACP)
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which protocol can be used for end-to-end detection in a network as well as for point-to-point
detection?
A. LACP
B. VLACP
C. RSTP
D. MSTP
Answer: B

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NO.8 When multiple VLANs are used, Dynamic Host Control protocol (DHCP) relay is required to get the
DHCP information from the end user VLAN to the DHCP server.
Which statement about how to enable DHCP relay for a VLAN is true?
A. The physical VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.
B. The IP address of the DHCP relay agent is used.
C. The IP address of the core server VLAN is used
D. The virtual VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.
Answer: D

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NO.9 A technician is adding the Virtual link Aggregation Control Protocol (VLACP) configuration to a
Converged Campus Solution where all Ethernet Routing Switches (ERSs) are directly connected without
intermediary WAN transport devices.
What are two recommended configuration tasks? (Choose two.)
A. Configure all links to use the same timeout value.
B. For the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) links, configure the long time-out value.
C. For the SMLT links, configure the long timeout value.
D. Configure all links to use a global reserved multicast MAC address for VLACP messages.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 When configuring a new Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 using the default interface, the attempt
to load an ACLI configuration fails because the default interface is the CLI.
How is the ACLI interface obtained?
A. Change the interface type in the config.cfg file.
B. Change the ACLI boot flag and save the boot configuration file.
C. Exit the CLI and choose ACLI at the interface manager prompt.
D. Use the abort command and enter 'no' at the default interface prompt.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Fn Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 configurations, which service class ensures that protocol
updates such as RIP and OSPF are able to get out of a heavily congested switch?
A. Bronze
B. Standard
C. Network Control
D. Premium Control
Answer: C

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NO.12 When incorporating Split Multi-Link Trunk (SMLT) on a pair of Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600
switches traffic from the edge of the network is directed to either ERS 8600. The ping-snoop feature
assists in determining which path the traffic is taking.
How does the ping-snoop operation work?
Determining which path the traffic is taking. How does the ping-snoop operation work?
A. Ping-snoop looks at the IP header and directs traffic to designated link.
B. Ping-snoop looks at the MAC header and directs traffic to the designated link
C. Ping-snoop identifies traffic that matches the IP flow specified in the ping-snoop command.
D. Ping-snoop identifies traffic that matches the MAC header (source and destination) specified in the
ping-snoop command.
Answer: C

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NO.13 A technician discovers that an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 cat5e copper link is intermittent.
The link connects a distant workstation to 8348GTX port 6/2. The cable path is undetermined at this point
and it is suspected to traverse many patch panels.
How can the ERS 8300 Time Domain reflectometer tool be of help in this situation?
A. The Virtual Circuit Test command config ethernet 6/2 vct test can detect opens, shorts, bad
terminations.
B. The virtual circuit Repair command config ethernet 6/2 vct repair can detect the bad cable pairs and
repair the cable by moving data to the good cable pairs.
C. The Virtual Circuit Echo command config ethernet 6/2 vct echo can detect the bad cable pairs only
when connected to another ERS 8300.
D. The Virtual Circuit Detect command config ethernet 6/2 vct detect can detect how many patch panels
are used between the device and switch and provide a percentage of dropped packets.
Answer: A

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NO.14 The Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 supports the feature IP VPN-Lite that does not require the use
of an MPLS network.
Which function does the ERS 8600 as a Provider Edge (PE) perform for IP VPN-Lite.?
A. The PE uses the Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF) instances to provide traffic separation
B. The PE provides route exchange with remote PE devices using OSPF.
C. The PE encapsulates the IP packets into the separate VPN-Lite VLANs for traffic separation
D. The PE incorporates Label Distribution Protocol across the core network to connect remote PE
devices.
Answer: A

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NO.15 When configuring an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 redundant Installation for warm standby,
which protocol is used to give the fastest recalculation of large layer 3 topology by the standby CPU, after
a Master CPU failure?
A. STP
B. Rip
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which VLAN/VLANS should be included on the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) for a proper functioning split
Multi-Link Trunking (SMLT) configuration?
A. only VLAN 101
B. only VLAN 1 and the 1ST
C. only the VLANs that are also included on the SMLT/SLT uplinks
D. the 1ST VWN and all the vWNs that are included on all SMLT/SLT links
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is Enterprise Policy Manager (EPM) used for in an Enterprise network?
A. to manage traffic prioritization and network access security for business applications
B. as an alternative to EA servers
C. to distribute control of packet classification for resiliency and efficiency
D. to assign user role attributes on the RADIUS server
Answer: A

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NO.18 A technician is configuring 802.1Q tagging Virtual Link Aggregation Control Protocol (VLACP) with
timeout and untagged frames to be discarded.
Which part of the network is being configured?
A. 1ST
B. the out-of-band management port
C. the edge access ports
D. the uplinks
Answer: D

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NO.19 An Information Technology organization needs to determine whether they should upgrade their
existing Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switches to release 5.0. Each chassis currently has both 8648GTR
8648TX modules. One of the features that the company requires is the ability to perform port mirroring on
multiple ports per module at a time.
What should be done to meet their port mirroring requirement when upgrading to software release 5.0?
A. Replace the existing modules with 8648GTRS modules,
B. Upgrade to ERS 8600 Release 5.0 without any hardware upgrade.
C. Replace the existing 8648TX modules with ERS 8648TXE for egress mirroring.
D. Recommend other means to capturing traffic.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Traceout allows a route to be traced to a network using an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 CLI
command. In the command output, the possible range of w
values is 1-255.
The w
value represents wait time for what?
A. Start of command execution
B. Time to live
C. Per probe
D. Completion of traceout report
Answer: C

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